which action should the nurse in the emergency department take first for a new patient who is vomiting blood
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. What should the nurse in the emergency department do first for a new patient who is vomiting blood?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's initial action should focus on assessing the patient's hemodynamic status by checking vital signs like blood pressure, heart rate, and respirations. This assessment will help determine the patient's immediate needs and guide further interventions. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are important steps, but they can follow the initial assessment of vital signs. Placing the patient in the supine position can be risky without first assessing the patient's vital signs, as aspiration is a concern. Therefore, assessing vital signs is the priority to ensure appropriate and timely care for the patient.

2. What is the primary nursing concern when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary nursing concern when caring for patients with splints, casts, or traction is to assess for and prevent neurovascular complications or dysfunction. This is crucial to ensure adequate circulation and nerve function, preventing long-term complications such as ischemia or nerve damage. While adequate nutrition and patient education are important aspects of care, they are not the primary concern in this scenario. Acute pain management is important but is secondary to preventing neurovascular complications in patients treated with splints, casts, or traction.

3. A 3-year-old child is seen in the health care clinic, and a diagnosis of encopresis is made. The nurse expects to provide teaching about which client problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encopresis is the repeated voluntary or involuntary passage of feces of normal or near-normal consistency in places not appropriate for that purpose according to the individual's own sociocultural setting. Signs of encopresis include evidence of soiled clothing, scratching or rubbing the anal area due to irritation, fecal odor without apparent awareness by the child, and social withdrawal. Teaching about odor is essential to address the issue of encopresis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because encopresis is not typically associated with nausea, malaise, or diarrhea. Therefore, teaching about these symptoms would not be relevant in the context of encopresis.

4. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.

5. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

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