Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse in the emergency department do first for a new patient who is vomiting blood?

• A. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter.
• B. Draw blood for coagulation studies.
• C. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations.
• D. Place the patient in the supine position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's initial action should focus on assessing the patient's hemodynamic status by checking vital signs like blood pressure, heart rate, and respirations. This assessment will help determine the patient's immediate needs and guide further interventions. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are important steps, but they can follow the initial assessment of vital signs. Placing the patient in the supine position can be risky without first assessing the patient's vital signs, as aspiration is a concern. Therefore, assessing vital signs is the priority to ensure appropriate and timely care for the patient.

2. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present in the final half of exhalation. One hour later, the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client:

• A. Has increased airway obstruction.
• B. Has improved airway obstruction.
• C. Needs to be suctioned.
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The change from low-pitched wheezes to high-pitched wheezes indicates a shift from larger to smaller airway obstruction, suggesting increased narrowing of the airways. This change signifies a progression or worsening of the airway obstruction. The absence of evidence of secretions does not support the need for suctioning. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which is not indicated by the information provided in the question.

3. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
• B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
• C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
• D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.

4. The mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair 4 days ago is receiving home care instructions. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instruction?

• A. ''I will use a short nipple on the bottle.''
• B. ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.''
• C. ''I can give my child the pacifier in 2 weeks.''
• D. ''I may give my baby food mixed with water.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.'' After a cleft palate repair, the child should avoid straws, pacifiers, spoons, and fingers near the mouth for 7 to 10 days to prevent injury to the surgical site. Allowing the child to use a straw can create negative pressure in the mouth, potentially disrupting the healing process. The other options are appropriate postoperative instructions for a child who had a cleft palate repair and do not pose a risk to the surgical site.

5. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

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