NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
- A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
- B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
- C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
- D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.
2. The nurse is reviewing the record of a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse should expect to note which finding documented in the child's record?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypotension
- D. Grossly bloody urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, a key finding documented in the child's record is weight gain due to massive edema. While urine may appear dark, foamy, and frothy, grossly bloody urine is not expected as only microscopic hematuria is present. Additionally, urine output is decreased, and hypertension is likely to be present. Therefore, the correct answer is weight gain as it aligns with the characteristic presentation of nephrotic syndrome.
3. A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given
- B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
- C. Inform radiology that a radioactive glucose preparation is needed
- D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.
4. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?
- A. Oculogyric crisis
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Dysphagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.
5. An 85-year-old client is diagnosed with hypernatremia due to lack of fluid intake and dehydration. The nurse knows that symptoms of hypernatremia include:
- A. Lack of thirst
- B. Pale skin
- C. Hypertension
- D. Swollen tongue
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypernatremia among elderly clients can result from dehydration and insufficient fluid intake, leading to sodium levels above 145 mEq/L. Common symptoms of hypernatremia include mental status changes, a thick or swollen tongue, excessive thirst, and flushed skin. Choice A, 'Lack of thirst,' is incorrect as hypernatremia typically presents with excessive thirst. Choice B, 'Pale skin,' is not a typical symptom of hypernatremia. Choice C, 'Hypertension,' is not a direct symptom of hypernatremia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like hypertension itself.
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