Nursing Elites

1. One hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next?

• A. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots.
• B. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak.
• C. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer.
• D. Set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine.

Correct answer: S

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action is to set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. The patient's pain level is high, which can hinder deep breathing and coughing. Addressing pain control is a priority to facilitate optimal respiratory function. Milking the chest tube to remove clots is unnecessary as the drainage amount is not alarming in the early postoperative period. Clamping the chest tube to locate the air leak is not recommended as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Assisting the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer is important but should follow adequate pain management to ensure the patient can effectively participate in these activities.

2. A patient diagnosed with epilepsy is receiving discharge education from a nurse. Which of the following teachings should be emphasized the most?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol and drugs
• B. Adhere to follow-up appointments with the neurologist, physician, or other healthcare provider as directed
• C. Continue taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have ceased
• D. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical teaching that the nurse should stress to a patient with epilepsy is to continue taking anticonvulsants even if seizures have stopped. Suddenly stopping antiepileptic drugs can lead to seizures and an increased risk of status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition. Choice A, advising to avoid alcohol and drugs, is important but not as crucial as maintaining anticonvulsant therapy. Choice B, emphasizing follow-up appointments, is essential but ensuring medication compliance is more critical to prevent seizure recurrence. Choice D, wearing a medical alert bracelet, is important for emergency identification but does not directly impact the patient's immediate safety like medication adherence does.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

• A. Fluid restriction to 1000cc per day
• B. Ambulate in the hallway 4 times a day
• C. Administer analgesic therapy as ordered
• D. Encourage increased caloric intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering analgesic therapy as ordered is the most appropriate action during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. In this phase, the primary focus is on managing the severe pain experienced by the individual. Analgesic therapy helps alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the crisis. The other options are not the priority during this phase. Fluid restriction is not recommended as hydration is crucial in managing a vasoocclusive crisis. Ambulation may worsen the pain and should be minimized during this phase. Encouraging increased caloric intake is not directly related to managing the acute phase of a vasoocclusive crisis.

4. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?

• A. Elevated serum calcium
• B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• C. Elevated serum vitamin D
• D. Low urine calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.

5. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?

• A. Infection related to hypertension
• B. Injury related to loss of blood in urine
• C. Excessive fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
• D. Retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.

Similar Questions