Nursing Elites

1. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Gastric lavage
• B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
• C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
• D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

2. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
• B. A high WBC count and manic activity
• C. A low WBC count and manic activity
• D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.

3. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?

• A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
• B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
• C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
• D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.

4. The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Increased tactile fremitus
• B. Dry, nonproductive cough
• C. Hyperresonance to percussion
• D. A grating sound on auscultation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias, such as pneumococcal pneumonia. Dullness to percussion would be expected due to consolidation. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough rather than a dry, nonproductive cough. Hyperresonance to percussion is not a typical finding in pneumonia and may suggest conditions like emphysema. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical in pneumonia, but a grating sound on auscultation is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia.

5. While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patient's SpO2 drops from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What is the priority action of the nurse?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Document the response to exercise
• C. Administer the PRN supplemental O2
• D. Encourage the patient to pace activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The drop in SpO2 to 88% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental oxygen when exercising. Administering PRN supplemental oxygen is the priority action to correct the hypoxemia and ensure adequate oxygenation during activity. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stabilizing the patient's oxygen levels. Documenting the response to exercise is important but secondary to addressing the immediate hypoxemia. Encouraging the patient to pace activity is not sufficient to address the acute drop in SpO2 and provide the necessary oxygen support.

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