a 15 year old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department which of these ord
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

2. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

3. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: 1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.

4. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.

5. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.

Similar Questions

Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?
A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?
A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?
The nurse is working in a support group for clients with HIV. Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses