Nursing Elites

1. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Gastric lavage
• B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
• C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
• D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

2. The healthcare professional is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the healthcare professional expects to note which assessment finding?

• A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
• B. Intense pain in the toe
• C. Yellow-tinged sclera
• D. Headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with sickle cell disease, severe generalized pain can be associated with vaso-occlusive crises, but yellow-tinged sclera is a common clinical finding related to sickle cell disease. This yellowing of the sclera, known as jaundice, occurs due to the release of bilirubin from damaged or destroyed red blood cells. Severe and persistent diarrhea is not a typical assessment finding in sickle cell disease. Intense pain in the toe may be associated with vaso-occlusive crisis but is not the expected assessment finding in this scenario. Headache is a common symptom in many conditions but is not specifically related to the assessment finding expected in a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with severe generalized pain.

3. An 85-year-old male has been losing mobility and gaining weight over the last two months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

• A. CBC (complete blood count)
• B. ECG (electrocardiogram)
• C. Thyroid function tests
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of weight gain and poor temperature tolerance in an elderly male suggest a potential thyroid dysfunction. Thyroid function tests are crucial in differentiating between hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and a euthyroid state. These tests involve measuring the serum levels of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, also known as thyroxine, to evaluate thyroid function accurately. A complete blood count (Choice A) would not directly address the symptoms presented. An electrocardiogram (Choice B) assesses heart activity and would not be the primary test for these symptoms. A CT scan (Choice D) provides detailed images of internal organs and structures, which would not be the initial investigation for the described symptoms.

4. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

5. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

• A. Blood sugar check
• B. CT scan
• C. Blood cultures
• D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

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