Nursing Elites

1. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?

• A. Bowel sounds are present.
• B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
• C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
• D. Abdominal pain is decreased.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.

2. The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority?

• A. Offer psychological support for depression.
• B. Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices.
• C. Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed.
• D. Teach about the need to avoid scratching any pruritic areas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. Pain management is the highest priority in this scenario as effective pain control is essential for the patient's overall well-being. Pain relief will not only improve the patient's comfort but also enhance their ability to eat, follow dietary recommendations, and be open to psychological support. Offering psychological support for depression (Choice A) is important but addressing pain takes precedence. While providing high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices (Choice B) is crucial, it is secondary to managing pain. Teaching about the need to avoid scratching pruritic areas (Choice D) is relevant but not the highest priority in this situation where pain management is critical for the patient's quality of life.

3. When administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30-day-old infant, which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?

• A. Gluteus maximus
• B. Gluteus minimus
• C. Vastus lateralis
• D. Vastus medialis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering medications to infants, it is common to use the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh for injections. The preferred site is the junction of the upper and middle thirds of the vastus lateralis muscle. This area provides a good muscle mass for the injection and minimizes the risk of hitting nerves or blood vessels. The gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus are not typically used for infant injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The vastus medialis is not as commonly used as the vastus lateralis for infant injections.

4. The healthcare provider is educating a parent about side effects of routine immunizations. Which of the following must be reported immediately?

• A. Irritability
• B. Slight edema at the injection site
• C. Local tenderness
• D. Temperature of 102.5?F

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 102.5°F or higher following immunization is considered an adverse reaction and should be reported immediately. This could indicate a more serious systemic response to the vaccine. Irritability, slight edema at the injection site, and local tenderness are common, mild side effects of routine immunizations and do not typically require immediate reporting. Other reactions that should be reported immediately include excessive crying for more than 3 hours, seizure activity, and the presence of tender, swollen, or reddened areas at the injection site.

5. A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31."? On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Continue the current plan without changes.
• B. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care.
• C. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem.
• D. Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to revise the target date for outcome attainment and reevaluate interventions. The initial desired outcome was for the patient to sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31. Since the patient is currently sleeping an average of 4 hours nightly and taking a 2-hour afternoon nap, the goal has not been achieved. By extending the time frame for attaining the outcome, the patient may have more time to progress towards the desired sleep duration. Additionally, examining interventions is crucial to identify any changes or adjustments that may be necessary to help the patient achieve the desired outcome. Continuing the current plan without changes is not appropriate as the goal has not been met. Removing the nursing diagnosis from the plan of care should only be considered when the problem is resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is not needed as the current diagnosis of Insomnia still accurately reflects the patient's condition.

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