the intravenous route is potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration because
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

2024 Nclex Questions

1. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

2. In the context of milieu therapy, what is its primary purpose?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Milieu therapy aims to provide routine daily experiences to clients. By offering a structured and predictable environment, it helps individuals feel safe and secure, reducing disruptive behaviors. Exploring the client's perception of reality (choice A) may be part of therapy but not the primary focus. Enhancing social interaction abilities (choice B) and addressing maladaptive behaviors (choice C) are important aspects of therapy but not the primary purpose of milieu therapy.

3. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

4. What are the three major sequential maturational crises for females?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The three major sequential maturational crises affecting females are puberty, pregnancy, and menopause. Puberty signifies the beginning of menarche, the first menstrual period. Pregnancy is a transformative experience with long-lasting effects on a woman's life. Menopause marks the end of menstrual cycles. These milestones are well-documented in research and are significant events in a woman's life. Nurses play a vital role in supporting females through these stages. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the recognized sequential maturational crises in a female's life.

5. When assessing a client's self-expectations about weight loss, which question is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client's self-expectations about weight loss, it is crucial to inquire about what the client considers a realistic weekly weight loss goal. This question helps in understanding the client's perception and expectations regarding the weight loss journey, enabling the establishment of achievable goals. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the aspect of setting realistic goals for weight loss. While questioning about changing eating habits, feelings about losing weight, or the importance of weight loss are relevant, they do not specifically focus on setting achievable goals, which is essential for effective weight management.

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