NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?
- A. IV infiltration may occur.
- B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
- C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
- D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor:
- A. That can be assessed
- B. That is in situ
- C. With increasing lymph node involvement
- D. With distant metastasis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'That is in situ.' Cancer in situ means that the cancer is still localized to the primary site. Cancer is graded in terms of tumor, grade, node involvement, and metastasis. Answer A is incorrect because Tis indicates a tumor that is in situ and can be assessed. Answer C is incorrect because T indicates tumor, not node involvement. Answer D is incorrect because a tumor that is in situ is not metastasized.
3. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?
- A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
- B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
- C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
- D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.
4. A client tells the nurse that his wife's nagging really gets on his nerves. He asks the nurse to talk with her about her nagging during their family session tomorrow afternoon. Which of the following responses is the most therapeutic for the client?
- A. "Tell me more specifically about her complaints."?
- B. "Can you think of reasons why she might nag you so much?"?
- C. "I'll help you think about how to bring this up yourself tomorrow afternoon."?
- D. "Why do you want me to initiate this in tomorrow's session rather than you?"?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most therapeutic response is to empower the client to address the issue himself. By offering assistance in thinking about how to bring up the topic during the family session, the nurse is promoting the client's autonomy and communication skills. This response encourages the client to take an active role in resolving the situation. Choices A and B focus on the wife's behavior, which is not the immediate concern during this interaction. Choice D challenges the client's request and shifts the responsibility back to the client, potentially hindering progress and discouraging open communication.
5. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
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