Nursing Elites

1. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

• A. IV infiltration may occur.
• B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
• C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
• D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

2. During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

• A. "My skin is always so dry."?
• B. "I often use a laxative for constipation."?
• C. "I have always liked to drink a lot of iced tea."?
• D. "I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

3. A contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:

• A. parasitic infection
• B. fungal infection
• C. spirochetal infection
• D. viral infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are mainly used for their localized effects. When treating atopic dermatitis with a steroidal preparation, there is a risk of the site being vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses like herpes simplex or varicella zoster pose a threat of disseminated infection. Therefore, viral infection is a contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in clients with atopic dermatitis. It is crucial to educate clients using topical corticosteroids to avoid crowds or people with infections and to promptly report any signs of infection. Choices A, B, and C (parasitic, fungal, and spirochetal infections) are not typically contraindications for topical corticosteroid use in the context of atopic dermatitis, as these agents do not pose the same risk of disseminated infection or systemic effects as viral infections.

4. The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?

• A. A client 2 days post-appendectomy
• B. A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
• C. A client 3 days post-splenectomy
• D. A client 2 days post-thoracotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a client 2 days post-thoracotomy because this client is the most critical and requires the expertise of a registered nurse. Clients A and B are stable and ready for discharge after their respective surgeries (appendectomy and thyroidectomy). Client C, who is 3 days post-splenectomy, is also stable enough to be cared for by a licensed practical nurse as they are in a stable condition and do not have immediate critical needs. Therefore, the registered nurse should care for the client 2 days post-thoracotomy due to the critical nature of the procedure and the immediate postoperative care required.

5. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:

• A. the client's body has developed tolerance, requiring more drug to produce the same effect.
• B. the client is preoccupied with getting the drug and is experiencing loss of control, indicating drug dependence.
• C. addiction is the term used to describe physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance.
• D. the client has a dual diagnosis of substance abuse and chronic back pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Drug tolerance is characterized by the ability to ingest a larger dose without adverse effects and decreased sensitivity to the substance. In this scenario, the client needing an increased dose of hydrocodone to achieve the same pain relief indicates tolerance developing, not addiction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes drug dependence, where the individual is preoccupied with the drug and has a loss of control. Choice C is incorrect because addiction involves psychological behaviors related to substance use, not just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a dual diagnosis, which is the coexistence of substance abuse and psychiatric disorders, not the development of tolerance to a drug.

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