Nursing Elites

1. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

• A. IV infiltration may occur.
• B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
• C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
• D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

2. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?

• A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
• B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
• C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
• D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.

3. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

4. As a type of quality indicator, an example of a structure standard is:

• A. a written philosophy.
• B. a procedure for a straight catheterization.
• C. a protocol for treatment of a client with chest pain.
• D. the diagnostic work-up for a client with abdominal pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a written philosophy.' Structure standards define the conditions needed to operate a system and do not directly involve client care. Examples include philosophy, objectives, goals, hours of operation, and management responsibility. Choices B, C, and D involve specific procedures and protocols related to client care, which are not structure standards.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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