Nursing Elites

1. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

• A. IV infiltration may occur.
• B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
• C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
• D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

2. The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. "Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss."?
• B. "Increase the fiber in your diet."?
• C. "Report nausea to the doctor immediately."?
• D. "Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the bladder wall leading to bleeding. To prevent this complication, the client should drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Walking to prevent calcium loss (choice A) and increasing fiber intake (choice B) are not directly related to the side effects of Cytoxan, making them unnecessary instructions in this case. While nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy, the immediate reporting of nausea to the doctor (choice C) is important but not specifically related to the use of Cytoxan in this scenario.

3. A client tells the nurse that his wife's nagging really gets on his nerves. He asks the nurse to talk with her about her nagging during their family session tomorrow afternoon. Which of the following responses is the most therapeutic for the client?

• A. "Tell me more specifically about her complaints."?
• B. "Can you think of reasons why she might nag you so much?"?
• C. "I'll help you think about how to bring this up yourself tomorrow afternoon."?
• D. "Why do you want me to initiate this in tomorrow's session rather than you?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most therapeutic response is to empower the client to address the issue himself. By offering assistance in thinking about how to bring up the topic during the family session, the nurse is promoting the client's autonomy and communication skills. This response encourages the client to take an active role in resolving the situation. Choices A and B focus on the wife's behavior, which is not the immediate concern during this interaction. Choice D challenges the client's request and shifts the responsibility back to the client, potentially hindering progress and discouraging open communication.

4. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

• A. generalized anxiety disorder.
• B. schizophrenia.
• C. post-traumatic stress disorder.
• D. bipolar disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

5. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, 'I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that.' Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "Why don't you take a class in basic finance from the local college?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse can raise the client's self-esteem by acknowledging the client's feelings and providing positive reinforcement. Choice C shows empathy and support by recognizing the client's strength and potential to learn. This response encourages the client to believe in her abilities and instills confidence. Choices A and B may come across as judgmental or critical, which can further lower the client's self-esteem. Choice D, while offering a solution, does not address the client's emotional needs or provide direct reassurance about her capabilities.

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