NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?
- A. IV infiltration may occur.
- B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
- C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
- D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.
2. While admitting a client to an acute-care psychiatric unit, the nurse asks about substance abuse based on:
- A. psychiatric disorders' higher prevalence in addicted populations
- B. individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse
- C. the importance of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings
- D. the significant impact of undetected substance problems on the treatment of psychiatric disorders
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse.' It is crucial to inquire about substance abuse during admission to an acute-care psychiatric unit because individuals with psychiatric disorders are more prone to experiencing substance abuse issues. Addressing substance abuse is vital for effective treatment and to prevent relapse in psychiatric disorders. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the prevalence of psychiatric illness in addicted populations rather than the relationship between psychiatric disorders and substance abuse. Option C is incorrect as it exaggerates the ease of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings. Option D is incorrect as undetected substance problems can indeed significantly impact the treatment of psychiatric disorders, but the main reason for inquiring about substance abuse is the increased susceptibility of individuals with psychiatric disorders to such issues.
3. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?
- A. A pair of forceps
- B. A torque wrench
- C. A pair of wire cutters
- D. A screwdriver
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A torque wrench is essential equipment to keep at the bedside for a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. This tool is used to tighten and loosen the screws of the crutch field tongs, allowing the nurse to adjust the pressure on the screws for proper support and alignment. A pair of forceps (choice A), wire cutters (choice C), and a screwdriver (choice D) are not required for managing crutch field tongs and, therefore, are incorrect choices in this scenario.
4. A 6-year-old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18-month-old. Which finding would support that assessment?
- A. She dresses herself
- B. She pulls a toy behind her
- C. She can build a tower of eight blocks
- D. She can copy a horizontal or vertical line
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'She pulls a toy behind her.' This behavior is consistent with the developmental stage of an 18-month-old who enjoys push-pull toys. Dressing oneself usually begins around 3 years old, building a tower of eight blocks at approximately 3 years old, and copying a horizontal or vertical line at about 4 years old. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they represent skills that are typically observed in older children.
5. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. a client with renal impairment
- B. a client with hypertension
- C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
- D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.
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