incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the african american community and might be explained by
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.

2. What are the three major sequential maturational crises for females?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The three major sequential maturational crises affecting females are puberty, pregnancy, and menopause. Puberty signifies the beginning of menarche, the first menstrual period. Pregnancy is a transformative experience with long-lasting effects on a woman's life. Menopause marks the end of menstrual cycles. These milestones are well-documented in research and are significant events in a woman's life. Nurses play a vital role in supporting females through these stages. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the recognized sequential maturational crises in a female's life.

3. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

4. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

5. The nurse is assessing the client recently returned from surgery. The nurse is aware that the best way to assess pain is to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way to evaluate pain levels is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale. This method provides a more standardized and quantifiable measure of pain compared to subjective observations like facial expressions (choice C) or direct questioning (choice D). Monitoring vital signs (choice A) can be part of pain assessment but is not as specific or reliable as asking the client to self-report pain intensity.

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