Nursing Elites

1. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received the DTaP (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine along with the polio vaccine. The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is not typically given until the child is 12-15 months old. Therefore, option B is correct as it includes vaccines that are usually administered by 12 months of age. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include vaccines that are typically given after 12 months of age.

2. A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?

• A. Scoliosis
• B. Bone deformity
• C. Heberden nodules
• D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

4. A nurse is assisting with data collection on the language development of a 9-month-old infant. Which developmental milestone does the nurse expect to note in an infant of this age?

• A. The infant babbles single consonants
• B. The infant babbles
• C. The infant says 'Mama.'
• D. The infant says 'Mama.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An 8- to 9-month-old infant can string vowels and consonants together. The first words, such as 'Mama,' 'Daddy,' 'bye-bye,' and 'baby,' begin to have meaning. A 1- to 3-month-old infant produces cooing sounds. Babbling is common in a 3- to 4-month-old. Single-consonant babbling occurs between 6 and 8 months of age. Therefore, the milestone of the infant saying 'Mama' is the most appropriate for a 9-month-old, indicating early language development. The other choices are developmentally inaccurate for a 9-month-old infant.

5. A nurse is determining the fetal heart rate (FHR) and places the fetoscope on the mother's abdomen to count the FHR. The nurse simultaneously palpates the mother's radial pulse and notes that it is synchronized with the sounds heard through the fetoscope. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Count the FHR for 60 seconds, ensuring that it is synchronized consistently with the mother's radial pulse.
• B. Move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the fetal heart.
• C. Ask the mother to lie still while both the FHR and the radial pulse rate are counted.
• D. Count the FHR for 30 seconds and then count the radial pulse rate of the mother for 30 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse would place the fetoscope on the maternal abdomen, over the fetal back. The nurse would then palpate the mother's radial pulse. If her pulse is synchronized with the sounds from the fetoscope, the nurse would move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the FHR. The nurse needs to be sure that the FHR is what is actually being heard. Other sounds that may be heard are the funic sound (blood flowing through the umbilical cord) and the uterine sound (blood flowing through the uterine vessels). The funic sound is synchronized with the FHR; the uterine sound is synchronized with the mother's pulse. Therefore, moving the fetoscope to a different area will help in accurately locating and counting the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because counting for 60 seconds without changing the position may not address the issue of accurately locating the FHR. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the need to reposition the fetoscope to locate the fetal heart. Choice D is incorrect because counting the FHR and the radial pulse rate separately may not help in differentiating the two sounds.

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