how often must physical restraints be released
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. How often should physical restraints be released?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

2. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.

3. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.

4. People living in poverty are most likely to obtain health care from:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: People living in poverty often face barriers to accessing regular healthcare services, leading them to seek care in Emergency Departments or urgent care centers. These facilities are more accessible and do not require appointments or insurance, making them a common choice for individuals with limited resources. Neighborhood clinics, while a good option, may not always be available or affordable for those in poverty. Specialists provide specialized care but usually require a referral from a primary care provider, which individuals in poverty may not have consistent access to. Therefore, Emergency Departments or urgent care centers are the most likely sources of healthcare for people living in poverty.

5. Which of the following activities is not part of client advocacy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information.' Client advocacy involves supporting the client's autonomy and choices. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client in treatment and decision-making (Choice A) to ensure their preferences are considered. Standing up for what is right for the client (Choice B) is also a crucial aspect of advocacy, ensuring their rights and well-being are protected. Encouraging the client to advocate for themselves (Choice D) empowers the client to express their needs. However, sharing personal opinions (Choice C) may influence the client's decision-making process and is not a recommended practice in client advocacy, as it can compromise the client's autonomy.

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