Nursing Elites

1. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

2. What should a client room environment include?

• A. a made bed, fresh water, thermostat regulation, and clean floors in all occupied client areas.
• B. a made bed, comfort and safety, a clutter-free area, hygiene articles nearby.
• C. accident prevention, comfort, a room (including furniture) that has been cleaned with chloroseptic wash, a bed that is made every other day.
• D. odor control (by spraying the room with deodorizers), closet storage of all client objects, a clean room. (Gloves should be worn when cleaning.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client room environment should include a made bed to provide a sense of neatness and comfort, ensuring the client's safety at all times. It is important to maintain a clutter-free area to prevent accidents and promote a relaxing environment. Having hygiene articles nearby allows the client easy access to personal care items. Choice A is incorrect because while fresh water and thermostat regulation are important, they are not essential components of a client room environment. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes more on cleaning procedures rather than creating a comfortable and safe environment for the client. Choice D is incorrect as it emphasizes odor control and storage rather than the client's comfort and safety.

3. A nurse calls a health care provider to report that a client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is exhibiting dyspnea and worsening of wheezing. The health care provider, who is in a hurry because of a situation in the emergency department, gives the nurse a telephone prescription for furosemide (Lasix) but does not specify the route of administration. What is the appropriate action on the part of the nurse?

• A. Calling the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription
• B. Administering the medication orally and clarifying the prescription once the health care provider has finished caring for the client in the emergency department
• C. Calling the nursing supervisor for assistance in determining the route of administration
• D. Administering the medication intravenously because this route is generally used for clients with CHF

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telephone prescriptions involve a health care provider dictating a prescribed therapy over the telephone to the nurse. The nurse must clarify the prescription by repeating it clearly and precisely to the health care provider. The nurse then writes the prescription on the health care provider's prescription sheet or enters it into the electronic medical record. It is crucial not to interpret an unclear prescription or administer a medication by a route that has not been expressly prescribed. In this case, the nurse should call the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription, ensuring the correct route of administration is specified. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because administering the medication without clarification, seeking assistance from the nursing supervisor, or choosing an arbitrary route of administration can compromise patient safety and violate medication administration protocols.

4. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. notify the physician of the drainage.
• B. change the dressing.
• C. reinforce the dressing.
• D. apply an abdominal binder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serosanguinous drainage is expected after a classic cholecystectomy resection. The appropriate intervention is to reinforce the dressing to maintain pressure and promote clot formation. Changing the dressing prematurely increases the risk of infection as it disturbs the wound. Applying an abdominal binder is not indicated as it can interfere with visualizing the dressing and assessing for any signs of bleeding or infection. Notifying the physician is not necessary at this point unless there are signs of excessive bleeding or other concerning symptoms.

5. As part of the teaching plan for a client with type I diabetes mellitus, the nurse should include that carbohydrate needs might increase when:

• A. an infection is present.
• B. there is an emotional upset.
• C. a large meal is eaten.
• D. active exercise is performed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During active exercise, insulin sensitivity increases, leading to lower blood glucose levels. To balance the effect of increased insulin sensitivity, additional carbohydrates might be needed. The other choices are incorrect because: A) an infection typically raises blood glucose levels rather than increasing the need for carbohydrates; B) emotional upset can impact blood glucose but does not directly affect carbohydrate needs; C) while a large meal can raise blood glucose levels, it does not necessarily mean an increase in carbohydrate needs.

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