NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A client was recently diagnosed with diverticulosis. What types of foods should the nurse recommend for this client?
- A. Whole grain cereal
- B. Eggs
- C. Cottage cheese
- D. Fish
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diverticulosis is a condition characterized by small protrusions in the intestinal tract. To manage diverticulosis, a high-fiber diet is recommended. Foods rich in fiber help prevent constipation and reduce the risk of inflammation in the intestines. Whole grain cereals are an excellent source of fiber and can aid in maintaining bowel regularity. Eggs, cottage cheese, and fish are not high-fiber foods and may not provide the necessary dietary support for a client with diverticulosis. While protein-rich foods like eggs and fish are beneficial for overall health, they are not the primary recommendation for managing diverticulosis.
2. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?
- A. Increased serum albumin level
- B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
- C. Improved alertness and orientation
- D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.
3. When taking a patient’s history, she mentions being depressed and dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?
- A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
- B. Calcitonin
- C. Pergolide mesylate (Permax)
- D. Verapamil (Calan)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Amitriptyline (Elavil) as it is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used to treat symptoms of depression and anxiety disorders. Amitriptyline works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain to improve mood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Calcitonin is a hormone used in the treatment of osteoporosis; Pergolide mesylate is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease; Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not mental health disorders.
4. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?
- A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
- B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
- C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
- D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.
5. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
- A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
- B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
- C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
- D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access