Nursing Elites

1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

• A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
• B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
• C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
• D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

2. In which of the following conditions would a healthcare provider not administer erythromycin?

• A. Campylobacteriosis infection
• B. Legionnaires disease
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Multiple Sclerosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system, involving the brain and spinal cord. Since MS is not caused by bacteria, administering erythromycin would not be appropriate. Campylobacteriosis infection, Legionnaires disease, and pneumonia are bacterial infections that can be treated with erythromycin, making them incorrect choices for conditions where erythromycin would not be administered.

3. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

4. The patient with chronic pancreatitis will be taught to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase)

• A. at bedtime.
• B. in the morning.
• C. with each meal.
• D. for abdominal pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take pancrelipase (Viokase) with each meal. Pancrelipase is a pancreatic enzyme replacement medication that helps with the digestion of nutrients. Patients with chronic pancreatitis often have difficulty digesting food properly due to insufficient pancreatic enzyme production. Taking pancrelipase with each meal assists in the breakdown of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates consumed during the meal. Option A ('at bedtime') is incorrect because enzymes should be taken with meals to aid in digestion. Option B ('in the morning') is not ideal as it does not ensure optimal enzyme activity during meals. Option D ('for abdominal pain') is incorrect as pancrelipase is not meant to be taken solely for pain relief but rather to aid in digestion.

5. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

• A. IgA
• B. IgD
• C. IgE
• D. IgG

Correct answer: D

Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.

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