NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?
- A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
- B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
- C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
- D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.
2. Which patient is at risk for developing oral candidiasis, a type of stomatitis?
- A. A 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic
- B. A 35-year-old man who has had HIV for 6 years
- C. A 40-year-old man who is undergoing chemotherapy
- D. An 80-year-old woman with dentures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic. This patient has multiple risk factors for developing oral candidiasis, including older age, being in a long-term care facility, and taking antibiotics. Candidiasis can be caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy (such as chemotherapy), older age, living in a long-term care facility, diabetes, having dentures, and poor oral hygiene. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for oral candidiasis compared to the correct answer.
3. A patient is being discharged from the med-surgical unit. The patient has a history of gastritis. The nurse questions the patient on their usual routine at home. Which of these statements would alert the nurse that additional teaching is required?
- A. I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.
- B. I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods.
- C. I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals.
- D. I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.' Aspirin is classified as an NSAID and can exacerbate existing stomach problems, such as gastritis. Therefore, patients with gastritis should avoid aspirin just like any other NSAID. Choice B, 'I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods,' is a good practice for a patient with gastritis. Choice C, 'I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals,' indicates understanding of the correct timing for antacid use. Choice D, 'I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often,' shows a suitable limitation of coffee intake, which is beneficial for patients with gastritis.
4. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Performing a chest x-ray via stretcher
- B. Obtaining blood cultures from two sites
- C. Administering Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV
- D. Inserting an Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.
5. For a 6-year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which one of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?
- A. Institute seizure precautions
- B. Weigh the child twice per shift
- C. Encourage the child to eat protein-rich foods
- D. Relieve boredom through physical activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Institute seizure precautions. The severity of the acute phase of AGN is variable and unpredictable; therefore, a child with edema, hypertension, and gross hematuria may be subject to complications, and anticipatory preparation such as seizure precautions is needed. Weighing the child twice per shift may be necessary for monitoring fluid balance but is not specifically related to the complications of AGN. Encouraging the child to eat protein-rich foods is important for overall nutrition but does not directly address the potential complications of AGN. Relieving boredom through physical activity is beneficial for overall well-being but is not the priority in this situation where seizure precautions are essential.
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