Nursing Elites

1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

• A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
• B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
• C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
• D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

2. Which of the following statements best describes postural drainage as part of chest physiotherapy?

• A. Tapping on the chest wall to loosen secretions
• B. Squeezing the abdomen to increase expansion of the upper chest
• C. Using gravity to move secretions in the lung tissue
• D. Dilating the trachea to facilitate better release of secretions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used in chest physiotherapy for clients with accumulated lung secretions. It involves positioning the client to utilize gravity in moving secretions from the lungs. Choice A, tapping on the chest wall, describes percussion, not postural drainage. Choice B, squeezing the abdomen, is not a correct description of postural drainage. Choice D, dilating the trachea, is not related to postural drainage but may be associated with airway clearance techniques.

3. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?

• A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
• B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
• C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
• D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.

4. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?

• A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
• B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
• C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
• D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.

5. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Elevate the patient's legs
• D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.

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