Nursing Elites

1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

• A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
• B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
• C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
• D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

2. After a bronchoscopy, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a chronic cough?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees.
• B. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns.
• C. Place the patient on bed rest for at least 4 hours after bronchoscopy.
• D. Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns after a bronchoscopy. This is important because a local anesthetic is used during the procedure to suppress the gag and cough reflexes. Monitoring the return of these reflexes helps prevent the risk of aspiration and ensures the patient can safely resume oral intake. While blood-tinged mucus can occur after bronchoscopy, it is a common occurrence and not a cause for immediate concern. Placing the patient on bed rest for an extended period is unnecessary, and elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position is not specifically required post-bronchoscopy.

3. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

4. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

5. The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective?

• A. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours.
• B. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions.
• C. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients.
• D. Insert nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient, the most effective nursing action is to place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. This position helps decrease the risk of aspiration as it prevents pooling of secretions and facilitates drainage. Turning and repositioning immobile patients every 2 hours is essential for preventing pressure ulcers and improving circulation but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Monitoring respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients is crucial to detect pneumonia early, but it does not directly prevent aspiration. Inserting a nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems may be necessary for nutritional support but does not address the risk of aspiration directly. Patients at high risk for aspiration include those with altered consciousness, difficulty swallowing, and those with nasogastric intubation, among others. Placing patients with altered consciousness in a side-lying position is a key intervention to reduce the risk of aspiration in this population. Other high-risk groups for aspiration include those who are seriously ill, have poor dentition, or are on acid-reducing medications.

Similar Questions