Nursing Elites

1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

• A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
• B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
• C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
• D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

2. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

3. An 85-year-old male has been losing mobility and gaining weight over the last two months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

• A. CBC (complete blood count)
• B. ECG (electrocardiogram)
• C. Thyroid function tests
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of weight gain and poor temperature tolerance in an elderly male suggest a potential thyroid dysfunction. Thyroid function tests are crucial in differentiating between hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and a euthyroid state. These tests involve measuring the serum levels of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, also known as thyroxine, to evaluate thyroid function accurately. A complete blood count (Choice A) would not directly address the symptoms presented. An electrocardiogram (Choice B) assesses heart activity and would not be the primary test for these symptoms. A CT scan (Choice D) provides detailed images of internal organs and structures, which would not be the initial investigation for the described symptoms.

4. The healthcare professional calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving an antibiotic. The patient is to receive 100mL of the antibiotic over 30 minutes. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare professional set the IV to deliver?

• A. 11
• B. 19
• C. 26
• D. 33

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the IV flow rate, you can use the formula: Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters to be infused x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. Substituting the given values, you get 100 mL x 10 drops/mL / 30 minutes = 33 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 33, as the healthcare professional should set the IV to deliver 33 drops per minute to infuse the antibiotic correctly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drops per minute based on the provided values.

5. The healthcare provider assesses a patient suspected of having an asthma attack. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Audible crackles and orthopnea
• B. An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles
• C. Audible crackles and use of accessory muscles
• D. Audible wheeze and orthopnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles,' is the correct answer. In asthma, patients commonly present with wheezing due to airway constriction and the use of accessory muscles to aid in breathing. Audible crackles (rales) are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, congestive heart failure, or pulmonary fibrosis. Orthopnea, which is difficulty breathing while lying flat, is typically seen in conditions like heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rather than asthma. Choice C is incorrect as crackles are not a typical finding in asthma. Choice D is incorrect as orthopnea is not a common clinical manifestation of asthma.

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