rhogam is most often used to treat mothers that have a infant rhogam is most often used to treat mothers that have a infant
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NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. Rhogam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

Correct answer: RH negative, RH positive

Rationale: Rhogam is administered to RH-negative mothers who have an RH-positive infant to prevent the development of anti-RH antibodies in the mother's system. Choice A (RH positive, RH positive) is incorrect because Rhogam is not used when both mother and infant are RH positive. Choice B (RH positive, RH negative) is incorrect because Rhogam is used when the mother is RH negative, not RH positive. Choice D (RH negative, RH negative) is incorrect as Rhogam is not typically needed if both mother and infant are RH negative.

2. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:

Correct answer: Force fluids and reassess blood pressure

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.

3. Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?

Correct answer: Thorough hand hygiene

Rationale: Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.

4. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?

Correct answer: Absence of inguinal swelling with crying

Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.

5. A new nursing unit is opening in the hospital. In order to meet the staffing needs of the unit, nurses from other areas will be moved and required to work in the new area. When notifying the nurses chosen to staff this area, the nurse manager states, 'You will either move to work on this unit or you will no longer be employed at this hospital.' Which of the following strategies is this nurse manager using?

Correct answer: Coercion

Rationale: The nurse manager in this scenario is using a coercion tactic to influence the nurses' job changes. Coercion involves using power to force others to make a choice. In this case, the nurses are left with no option but to either work on the new unit or face termination. Choice A, 'Manipulation,' is incorrect as manipulation involves influencing others through deceit or dishonesty, which is not evident in this situation. Choice B, 'Facilitation,' is incorrect as it refers to the process of making something easier or more convenient, which is not applicable here. Choice C, 'Co-optation,' involves absorbing or integrating individuals into a group, which does not align with the scenario described. Therefore, the most suitable term for the nurse manager's strategy is 'Coercion.'

Similar Questions

A fragile 87-year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over the last two weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?
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Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?
Which is an example of an intentional tort?
When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

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