rhogam is most often used to treat mothers that have a infant

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. Rhogam is most often used to treat mothers that have a infant.

A. RH positive, RH positive
B. RH positive, RH negative
C. RH negative, RH positive
D. RH negative, RH negative

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rhogam is administered to RH-negative mothers who have an RH-positive infant to prevent the development of anti-RH antibodies in the mother's system. Choice A (RH positive, RH positive) is incorrect because Rhogam is not used when both mother and infant are RH positive. Choice B (RH positive, RH negative) is incorrect because Rhogam is used when the mother is RH negative, not RH positive. Choice D (RH negative, RH negative) is incorrect as Rhogam is not typically needed if both mother and infant are RH negative.

2. What is the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents?

A. Progressive failure to adapt
B. Feelings of anger or hostility
C. Reunion wish or fantasy
D. Feelings of alienation or isolation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings of alienation or isolation are the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents. Adolescents may experience a gradual isolation leading to a loss of meaningful social contacts, which can be self-imposed or result from an inability to express feelings. During this developmental stage, achieving a sense of identity and peer acceptance is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Progressive failure to adapt, feelings of anger or hostility, and reunion wish or fantasy are not typically identified as the primary cause of suicide in adolescents.

3. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?

A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.

4. A home health nurse is at the home of a client with diabetes and arthritis. The client has difficulty drawing up insulin. It would be most appropriate for the nurse to refer the client to

A. A social worker from the local hospital
B. An occupational therapist from the community center
C. A physical therapist from the rehabilitation agency
D. Another client with diabetes mellitus who takes insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An occupational therapist from the community center would be the most appropriate referral for this client. Occupational therapists specialize in helping individuals improve fine motor skills, which are essential for tasks like drawing up insulin injections. A social worker typically focuses on psychosocial aspects, a physical therapist on physical mobility, and another client with diabetes would not have the professional expertise to address the client's specific needs related to insulin preparation.

5. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.