NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. Asterixis and lethargy
- B. Jaundiced sclera and skin
- C. Elevated total bilirubin level
- D. Liver 3 cm below costal margin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical assessment data for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient with acute liver failure are asterixis and lethargy. These findings are indicative of grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy, which signals a rapid deterioration in the patient's condition, necessitating early transfer to a transplant center. Jaundiced sclera and skin, elevated total bilirubin level, and a liver 3 cm below the costal margin are all typical findings in hepatic failure but do not indicate an immediate need for a change in the therapeutic plan. Therefore, while these findings are relevant and should be reported, they are not as urgent as asterixis and lethargy in a patient with acute liver failure.
2. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, what level of pressure should the nurse apply?
- A. 70-80 mmHg
- B. 100-120 mmHg
- C. 150-170 mmHg
- D. 200 mmHg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions. Choice A (70-80 mmHg) is too low and may not effectively clear secretions. Choices C (150-170 mmHg) and D (200 mmHg) are too high and can potentially harm the client by causing hypoxia or damaging the airway.
3. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?
- A. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- B. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."?
- C. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- D. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.
4. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:
- A. Oligomenorrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Menorrhagia
- D. Metrorrhagia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient after a coronary angiogram. Which of these actions taken by the nursing assistant would most require the nurse's immediate intervention?
- A. The nursing assistant fills the patient's pitcher with ice-cold drinking water
- B. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a meal
- C. The nursing assistant refills the ice pack placed on the insertion site
- D. The nursing assistant places an extra pillow under the patient's head upon request
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a coronary angiogram, patients need to maintain bed rest and keep the head of the bed at no more than 30 degrees for 3-6 hours, depending on the insertion site. Elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a meal could increase the risk of bleeding or complications at the insertion site. Refilling the ice pack placed on the insertion site is appropriate for managing potential swelling or discomfort. Filling the patient's pitcher with ice-cold drinking water is a standard care task. Placing an extra pillow under the patient's head upon request is a comfort measure and does not pose a risk to the patient's recovery.
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