a nurse is caring for a client who seeks treatment for a sore throat swollen lymph nodes in the neck fever chills and extreme fatigue based on these s
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.

2. When teaching the client with tuberculosis about follow-up home care, the nurse should emphasize that a laboratory appointment for which of the following lab tests is critical?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should emphasize the importance of monitoring liver function tests in clients taking INH due to the risk of hepatocellular injury and hepatitis associated with this medication. Regular assessment of liver enzymes can help detect liver damage early. Monitoring kidney function, blood sugar levels, or cardiac enzymes is not specifically required for clients taking INH and tuberculosis treatment.

3. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

4. When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.

5. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.

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