Nursing Elites

1. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?

• A. The Mantoux test induration measured 7 mm.
• B. The chest x-ray revealed infiltrates in the lower lobes.
• C. The patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection.
• D. The patient has a cough producing blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.

2. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

3. The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the mother of a child following orchiopexy, which was performed on an outpatient basis. Which is a priority in the plan of care?

• A. Wound care
• B. Pain control measures
• C. Measurement of intake
• D. Cold and heat applications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following orchiopexy, the priority in the plan of care for the child's mother is wound care. The most common complications associated with orchiopexy are bleeding and infection. Discharge instructions should focus on demonstrating wound cleansing and dressing, and teaching parents to recognize signs of infection like redness, warmth, swelling, or discharge. It is crucial to prevent movement of the testicles and avoid contamination of the suture line. While analgesics may be prescribed, pain control measures are not the priority among the options presented. Measurement of intake is not essential as the child is likely to resume normal eating habits. Cold and heat applications are not typical prescribed treatments for post-orchiopexy care.

4. A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?

• A. The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
• B. The patient has a history of bronchitis.
• C. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past.
• D. The patient is on beta-blockers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.

5. A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?

• A. Intercostal retractions
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2)
• D. Decreased venous O2 pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.

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