Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new colostomy is being taught how to care for the colostomy bag. Which statement from the client indicates the need for more education?

• A. I can clean the skin around the ostomy site with soap and water when I change the bag.
• B. I should irrigate the stoma regularly to avoid buildup of gas and odor.
• C. I need to wait 30 minutes after I irrigate to replace the colostomy bag.
• D. I should change the bag when it is one-third to one-fourth full.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with a new colostomy requires education on proper colostomy care. Waiting 30 minutes after irrigating to replace the colostomy bag is unnecessary. The client may reapply the bag once the skin is dry. Cleaning the skin around the ostomy site with soap and water, irrigating the stoma regularly to prevent gas and odor buildup, and changing the bag when it is one-third to one-fourth full are appropriate actions. Therefore, the statement indicating the need for more education is the one suggesting a specific time interval for bag replacement after irrigation.

2. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?

• A. The patient is allergic to shellfish.
• B. The patient has a pacemaker.
• C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia.
• D. The patient takes antipsychotic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has a pacemaker. A pacemaker is a contraindication to MRI scanning due to the interference with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner. This interference can potentially deactivate the pacemaker, putting the patient at risk. Patients with cardiac implantable electronic devices (CIED) are at risk for inappropriate device therapy, device heating/movement, and arrhythmia during MRI. This necessitates special precautions such as scheduling in a CIED blocked slot or having electrophysiology nurse or technician support. It is important to ensure that the patient's pacemaker is MRI conditional before proceeding with the scan. The other choices, such as being allergic to shellfish, suffering from claustrophobia, or taking antipsychotic medication, are not direct contraindications to undergoing an MRI scan for suspected lung cancer.

3. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
• B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
• C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
• D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

4. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?

• A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
• B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
• C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
• D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

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