NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The healthcare provider assesses a patient suspected of having an asthma attack. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?
- A. Audible crackles and orthopnea
- B. An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles
- C. Audible crackles and use of accessory muscles
- D. Audible wheeze and orthopnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles,' is the correct answer. In asthma, patients commonly present with wheezing due to airway constriction and the use of accessory muscles to aid in breathing. Audible crackles (rales) are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, congestive heart failure, or pulmonary fibrosis. Orthopnea, which is difficulty breathing while lying flat, is typically seen in conditions like heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rather than asthma. Choice C is incorrect as crackles are not a typical finding in asthma. Choice D is incorrect as orthopnea is not a common clinical manifestation of asthma.
2. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Left upper quadrant pain
- D. Palpable abdominal mass
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
3. A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?
- A. Peritonitis
- B. Appendicitis
- C. Intussusception
- D. Hirschsprung's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.
4. When developing a plan of care for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage limited activity and provide safety measures.
- B. Catheterize the child to monitor intake and output strictly.
- C. Encourage the child to talk about feelings related to illness.
- D. Encourage classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis should be to encourage limited activity and provide safety measures. In glomerulonephritis, children tend to restrict their activities voluntarily due to fatigue during the active phase of the disease. Catheterization for intake and output monitoring may predispose the child to infection and is not the primary intervention. Encouraging the child to talk about feelings related to the illness may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-year-old; instead, children can express feelings through play. It is important to limit visitors to allow the child to rest and recover rather than encouraging classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.
5. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia nervosa
- D. Systemic sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.
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