NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?
- A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
- B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
- C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (Choice A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (Choice B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (Choice C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.
2. Parents of a 6-month-old breastfed baby ask the nurse about increasing the baby's diet. Which of the following should be added first?
- A. Cereal
- B. Eggs
- C. Meat
- D. Juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cereal.' The guidelines of the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend introducing one new food at a time, starting with strained cereal. Cereal is often recommended as a first solid food for infants due to its soft texture and iron-fortified properties, which are important for the baby's development. Eggs and meat are common allergenic foods and are usually introduced later. Juice is not recommended for infants under 1 year old due to its high sugar content and lack of nutritional value compared to whole fruits.
3. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. The Mantoux test induration measured 7 mm.
- B. The chest x-ray revealed infiltrates in the lower lobes.
- C. The patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection.
- D. The patient has a cough producing blood-tinged mucus.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.
4. A home health nurse is at the home of a client with diabetes and arthritis. The client has difficulty drawing up insulin. It would be most appropriate for the nurse to refer the client to
- A. A social worker from the local hospital
- B. An occupational therapist from the community center
- C. A physical therapist from the rehabilitation agency
- D. Another client with diabetes mellitus who takes insulin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An occupational therapist from the community center would be the most appropriate referral for this client. Occupational therapists specialize in helping individuals improve fine motor skills, which are essential for tasks like drawing up insulin injections. A social worker typically focuses on psychosocial aspects, a physical therapist on physical mobility, and another client with diabetes would not have the professional expertise to address the client's specific needs related to insulin preparation.
5. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?
- A. Detached Retina
- B. Fovea Centralis
- C. Presbyopia
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.
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