Nursing Elites

1. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?

• A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
• B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
• C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
• D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.

2. A patient diagnosed with alopecia would be described as having:

• A. body lice
• B. lack of ear lobes
• C. Indigestion
• D. hair loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'hair loss.' Alopecia is a medical term that specifically refers to the condition of hair loss, usually in patches or all over the body. Choice A, 'body lice,' refers to a parasitic infestation and is not related to alopecia. Choice B, 'lack of ear lobes,' is completely unrelated to the term alopecia, which is solely about hair loss. Choice C, 'Indigestion,' has no connection to alopecia as it pertains to digestive issues, not hair loss. Therefore, the correct description for a patient diagnosed with alopecia is 'hair loss.'

3. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
• B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
• C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
• D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.

4. What is the most common complication of chest wall injury?

• A. Hemothorax
• B. Atelectasis
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia is the most common complication of chest wall injury. Chest wall trauma can lead to impaired lung function, making patients more susceptible to pneumonia due to reduced ability to clear secretions and impaired breathing. While hemothorax and pneumothorax are potential complications of chest wall injury, pneumonia is more commonly encountered. Atelectasis, although a common pulmonary complication, is not typically the most common complication seen in chest wall injuries.

5. What is the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents?

• A. Progressive failure to adapt
• B. Feelings of anger or hostility
• C. Reunion wish or fantasy
• D. Feelings of alienation or isolation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings of alienation or isolation are the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents. Adolescents may experience a gradual isolation leading to a loss of meaningful social contacts, which can be self-imposed or result from an inability to express feelings. During this developmental stage, achieving a sense of identity and peer acceptance is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Progressive failure to adapt, feelings of anger or hostility, and reunion wish or fantasy are not typically identified as the primary cause of suicide in adolescents.

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