Nursing Elites

1. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?

• A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
• B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
• C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
• D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.

2. When administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30-day-old infant, which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?

• A. Gluteus maximus
• B. Gluteus minimus
• C. Vastus lateralis
• D. Vastus medialis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering medications to infants, it is common to use the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh for injections. The preferred site is the junction of the upper and middle thirds of the vastus lateralis muscle. This area provides a good muscle mass for the injection and minimizes the risk of hitting nerves or blood vessels. The gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus are not typically used for infant injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The vastus medialis is not as commonly used as the vastus lateralis for infant injections.

3. An 85-year-old client is diagnosed with hypernatremia due to lack of fluid intake and dehydration. The nurse knows that symptoms of hypernatremia include:

• A. Lack of thirst
• B. Pale skin
• C. Hypertension
• D. Swollen tongue

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypernatremia among elderly clients can result from dehydration and insufficient fluid intake, leading to sodium levels above 145 mEq/L. Common symptoms of hypernatremia include mental status changes, a thick or swollen tongue, excessive thirst, and flushed skin. Choice A, 'Lack of thirst,' is incorrect as hypernatremia typically presents with excessive thirst. Choice B, 'Pale skin,' is not a typical symptom of hypernatremia. Choice C, 'Hypertension,' is not a direct symptom of hypernatremia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like hypertension itself.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
• B. Periodic crying and irritability
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.

5. Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward.
• B. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed.
• C. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
• D. Observe the patient's breathing pattern.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, requesting the patient to walk with eyes closed is crucial. This test assesses the patient's balance, gait, and coordination, which can be impaired in hepatic encephalopathy due to altered mental status and brain function. Walking with eyes closed challenges the patient's sensory input and proprioception, providing valuable information on improvement or deterioration in neurological function. Asking the patient to extend both arms forward is used to check for asterixis, a sign often seen in hepatic encephalopathy, but it is not specific for evaluating treatment effectiveness. Performing the Valsalva maneuver is unrelated to assessing hepatic encephalopathy and is more commonly used in cardiac evaluations. Observing the patient's breathing pattern may be important in other conditions but is not directly relevant to evaluating treatment effectiveness for hepatic encephalopathy.

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