Nursing Elites

1. A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan?

• A. Purpose of antibiotic therapy
• B. Ways to limit oral fluid intake
• C. Appropriate use of cough suppressants
• D. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute bronchitis, which is often viral, cough suppressants can help manage the symptoms of a nonproductive cough. Antibiotics are not typically used in acute bronchitis unless there are systemic symptoms indicating a bacterial infection. Limiting oral fluid intake is not recommended; in fact, maintaining adequate hydration is important. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy may not be directly relevant to the management of acute bronchitis.

2. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, what level of pressure should the nurse apply?

• A. 70-80 mmHg
• B. 100-120 mmHg
• C. 150-170 mmHg
• D. 200 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions. Choice A (70-80 mmHg) is too low and may not effectively clear secretions. Choices C (150-170 mmHg) and D (200 mmHg) are too high and can potentially harm the client by causing hypoxia or damaging the airway.

3. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

4. The nurse is caring for a 73-year-old man with cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern?

• A. The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain upon palpation.
• B. The patient's hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended.
• C. The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day.
• D. The patient's skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels on the abdomen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most concerning data obtained by the nurse is the patient's hands flapping back and forth when the arms are extended, indicating asterixis, which is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. This condition can progress to hepatic coma and requires immediate attention. The presence of spider angiomas and right upper-quadrant abdominal pain are common findings in cirrhosis and do not warrant urgent intervention. Although ascites and weight gain suggest the need for treatment, they are not as alarming as the neurologic manifestations seen in hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

Similar Questions