NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan?
- A. Purpose of antibiotic therapy
- B. Ways to limit oral fluid intake
- C. Appropriate use of cough suppressants
- D. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute bronchitis, which is often viral, cough suppressants can help manage the symptoms of a nonproductive cough. Antibiotics are not typically used in acute bronchitis unless there are systemic symptoms indicating a bacterial infection. Limiting oral fluid intake is not recommended; in fact, maintaining adequate hydration is important. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy may not be directly relevant to the management of acute bronchitis.
2. What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?
- A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
- B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
- C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
- D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.
3. Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?
- A. 45-year-old African-American attorney
- B. 60-year-old Asian-American shop owner
- C. 40-year-old Caucasian nurse
- D. 55-year-old Hispanic teacher
Correct answer: A
Rationale: African-Americans have a higher risk of developing hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. They tend to develop high blood pressure at younger ages and are more sensitive to salt, which increases their risk of hypertension. Additionally, studies have shown that African-Americans may respond differently to hypertensive drugs. Therefore, the 45-year-old African-American attorney is at the greatest risk for developing hypertension. The other choices do not specify factors that put them at a higher risk for hypertension compared to African-Americans.
4. When taking a patient’s history, she mentions being depressed and dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?
- A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
- B. Calcitonin
- C. Pergolide mesylate (Permax)
- D. Verapamil (Calan)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Amitriptyline (Elavil) as it is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used to treat symptoms of depression and anxiety disorders. Amitriptyline works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain to improve mood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Calcitonin is a hormone used in the treatment of osteoporosis; Pergolide mesylate is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease; Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not mental health disorders.
5. After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, what client response should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Abdominal distension
- B. Currant jelly-like stools
- C. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting
- D. Passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, the nurse should observe the passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools. This indicates a successful reduction of the telescoped bowel segment. Abdominal distension and currant jelly-like stools are clinical manifestations of intussusception, not expected outcomes following hydrostatic reduction. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting suggests an unresolved gastrointestinal issue, not a successful reduction of intussusception.
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