NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan?
- A. Purpose of antibiotic therapy
- B. Ways to limit oral fluid intake
- C. Appropriate use of cough suppressants
- D. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute bronchitis, which is often viral, cough suppressants can help manage the symptoms of a nonproductive cough. Antibiotics are not typically used in acute bronchitis unless there are systemic symptoms indicating a bacterial infection. Limiting oral fluid intake is not recommended; in fact, maintaining adequate hydration is important. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy may not be directly relevant to the management of acute bronchitis.
2. The nurse caring for Mrs. J is prepared to suction her endotracheal tube. Which of the following interventions will reduce hypoxia during this procedure?
- A. Hyperoxygenate Mrs. J for up to 60 seconds prior to starting
- B. Administer 15 mL of sterile fluid into the tube prior to suctioning
- C. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time
- D. Wait 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before suctioning a client's endotracheal tube, it is essential to hyperoxygenate the client for approximately 30 to 60 seconds. Hyperoxygenation helps increase oxygen delivery to the tissues, reducing the risk of hypoxia during and after the suctioning procedure. Administering fluid into the tube before suctioning (Choice B) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. Suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds at a time (Choice C) is a general guideline but does not specifically address reducing hypoxia. Waiting 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again (Choice D) may lead to inadequate oxygenation and potential hypoxia, making it less effective in preventing this complication compared to hyperoxygenation prior to suctioning.
3. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?
- A. Induce vomiting
- B. Hold the next dose of Lithium
- C. Administer an antiemetic
- D. Give the next dose of Lithium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the next dose of Lithium. The blood lithium value of 1.7 mcg/L exceeds the therapeutic range of 0.5-1.5 mcg/L, indicating potential toxicity. Holding the next dose is crucial to prevent further accumulation of lithium in the bloodstream. Inducing vomiting is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to prevent further absorption of lithium. Administering an antiemetic is not the priority in lithium toxicity. Giving the next dose of lithium would exacerbate the toxicity and should be avoided.
4. The nurse is writing out discharge instructions for the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease. The nurse should focus primarily on which aspect of care?
- A. Restricting activity
- B. Following a gluten-free diet
- C. Following a lactose-free diet
- D. Giving medication to manage the condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease is to instruct the child and parents about proper dietary management. The cornerstone of managing celiac disease is maintaining a strict gluten-free diet to prevent symptoms and long-term complications. While medications may be part of the treatment plan, dietary adjustments, particularly following a gluten-free diet, are crucial for managing the condition effectively. Restricting activity is not the primary focus of care for celiac disease. A lactose-free diet is not typically necessary unless the child also has lactose intolerance, which is distinct from celiac disease.
5. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia nervosa
- D. Systemic sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access