Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
• B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
• C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.

2. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

• A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
• B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
• C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
• D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.

3. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?

• A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
• B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
• C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
• D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (Choice A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (Choice B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (Choice C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.

4. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?

• A. Induce vomiting
• B. Hold the next dose of Lithium
• C. Administer an antiemetic
• D. Give the next dose of Lithium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the next dose of Lithium. The blood lithium value of 1.7 mcg/L exceeds the therapeutic range of 0.5-1.5 mcg/L, indicating potential toxicity. Holding the next dose is crucial to prevent further accumulation of lithium in the bloodstream. Inducing vomiting is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to prevent further absorption of lithium. Administering an antiemetic is not the priority in lithium toxicity. Giving the next dose of lithium would exacerbate the toxicity and should be avoided.

5. Which of the following is NOT a warning sign that compensatory mechanisms in a patient in shock are failing?

• A. Increasing heart rate above normal for the patient's age.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses
• C. Decreasing level of consciousness
• D. Increasing blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient in shock, increasing blood pressure is not a sign that compensatory mechanisms are failing. As shock progresses and compensatory mechanisms fail, systolic blood pressure will decrease, leading to hypotension, which is a late and ominous sign in these patients. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are warning signs of failing compensatory mechanisms in shock: an increasing heart rate above normal, absent peripheral pulses, and decreasing level of consciousness, respectively. An increasing blood pressure is not indicative of compensatory failure in shock; instead, it may be a sign of compensatory mechanisms still trying to maintain perfusion pressure.

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