Nursing Elites

1. A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:

• A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
• B. the client has a Foley catheter.
• C. the client's family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
• D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.

Correct answer: V

Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.

2. What is the role of an incident report in risk management?

• A. To provide liability protection.
• B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
• C. To discipline staff for errors.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incident reports play a crucial role in risk management by providing data for analysis to prevent future problems. They are not primarily for liability protection (A) or disciplining staff (C). Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer. Choosing option D is incorrect because incident reports do not solely exist for all the mentioned purposes, but primarily to provide data for analysis and preventive actions.

3. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

4. The nurse is caring for a non-English speaking client. The surgeon has asked the nurse to hurry up and prepare the client for their scheduled procedure, which is running late. Which of the following is least appropriate?

• A. Explain to the client's family member that the procedure may be delayed further.
• B. Inform the surgeon that the procedure will be delayed further because getting a staff interpreter will take additional time.
• C. Allow the client's family member to serve as the interpreter.
• D. Ask if a phone-service interpreting service is available to expedite the client preparation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the client's family member to serve as the interpreter is the least appropriate option. It is not recommended to rely on family members for interpretation as they may not be impartial, accurate, or trained to handle sensitive medical information. This can lead to misunderstandings, breaches in confidentiality, and compromised care. Choice A is a better option as it involves communication with the family member to manage expectations. Choice B is also appropriate as it prioritizes the need for a professional interpreter to ensure accurate communication. Choice D is a valid option as it explores the possibility of using a phone-service interpreting service to facilitate communication efficiently.

5. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

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