Nursing Elites

1. A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:

• A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
• B. the client has a Foley catheter.
• C. the client's family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
• D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.

Correct answer: V

Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.

2. The client is going for surgery and mentions their religious objection to blood transfusions. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

• A. "I can ask pastoral care to send someone to speak with you about this concern since it would not be safe to refuse a blood transfusion."?
• B. "I understand, and you have the right to refuse blood transfusions."?
• C. "While I understand, if there is excessive bleeding during surgery, we may need to transfuse blood to stabilize you."?
• D. "I have received a blood transfusion before, and I do not think you understand the risks versus the benefits of refusing this."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response is, '"I understand, and you have the right to refuse blood transfusions."? This answer shows respect for the client's autonomy and religious beliefs. It is crucial for healthcare providers to acknowledge and support a patient's decision-making regarding their care, even if it conflicts with medical advice. Option A is not ideal as it might seem dismissive of the client's beliefs. Option C introduces a potential negative outcome of refusing a blood transfusion, which could induce fear or coercion. Option D is inappropriate because it implies judgment and does not uphold the client's autonomy.

3. An LPN on a Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) team is tasked with implementing strategies to reduce medication errors. Which of the following strategies would be most beneficial for the LPN to implement?

• A. Track individuals who commit medication errors and report them to administration.
• B. Remind staff of the five rights of medication administration.
• C. Ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs.
• D. Double-check that staff document medication administration in the electronic medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most beneficial strategy for the LPN on a CQI team to implement is to ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs. Organized and accurate incident reports are crucial in tracking and understanding why errors occurred. CQI teams utilize incident reports to develop new policies or enhance existing ones to standardize medical processes and reduce errors. Tracking individuals with medication errors (Choice A) may create a culture of blame rather than focusing on system improvements. Reminding staff of the five rights of medication administration (Choice B) is important for knowledge reinforcement but does not directly address the process improvement aspect. Double-checking documentation in the electronic medical record (Choice D) is necessary for accuracy but does not provide the detailed insights obtained from incident reports for process improvement.

4. For which of the following conditions might blood be drawn to assess uric acid levels?

• A. asthma
• B. gout
• C. diverticulitis
• D. meningitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Uric acid levels are commonly assessed in patients with gout. Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in diagnosing and managing gout. Asthma, diverticulitis, and meningitis are not conditions where blood tests for uric acid levels are typically necessary. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis involves inflammation of the digestive tract, and meningitis is an infection of the meninges in the brain and spinal cord.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

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