a middle aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months the nurse should assess the woman for oth
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep

1. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

Correct answer: perimenopause

Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period during which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. Perimenopause typically lasts around five years. Climacteric is a term that describes the period when physiologic changes result in the cessation of a woman's reproductive ability and decreased sexual activity. This term applies to both genders. Menopause is the time when menstruation permanently stops. Postmenopause refers to the period after menopausal changes are complete. In this scenario, the woman's irregular menses indicate she is likely in the perimenopausal stage, experiencing hormonal fluctuations and changes.

2. The LPN on shift notices a client coming into the clinic with bruises on his arm. The client seems very afraid and doesn’t speak much, which concerns the nurse because these are signs of physical abuse. The nurse should ____.

Correct answer: report the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols

Rationale: In cases of suspected abuse, healthcare providers have a legal and ethical obligation to report such incidents to the relevant authorities. This not only ensures the safety and well-being of the client but also helps in preventing further harm. Option A is incorrect as attempting to gather evidence of abuse may interfere with the official investigation and is not the nurse's role. Offering support is crucial, but the priority is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities. Option C is incorrect as ignoring signs of abuse goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to protect their clients. Option D is incorrect as reporting suspected abuse to other nurses without involving the appropriate authorities may delay necessary actions and intervention.

3. A client who is experiencing infertility says to the nurse, 'I feel I will be incomplete as a man/woman if I cannot have a child.' Which of the following nursing diagnoses is likely to be appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: Body Image Disturbance

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Body Image Disturbance.' The client's statement reflects concerns about self-identity and completeness related to infertility, indicating a disturbance in body image perception. 'Risk for Self-Harm' is not the best choice as there is no indication of immediate self-harm. 'Ineffective Role Performance' is less appropriate since the statement does not directly relate to a disruption in the parent's role. 'Powerlessness' could be considered if the client expressed feelings of powerlessness specifically related to the infertility issue.

4. An Rh-negative woman with previous sensitization has delivered an Rh-positive fetus. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the client’s care plan?

Correct answer: emotional support to help the family cope with feelings of guilt about the infant’s condition

Rationale: In this scenario, the Rh-negative woman has been sensitized, posing a risk to any Rh-positive fetus she delivers. The most appropriate nursing action is to provide emotional support to help the family cope with the infant's condition. This includes addressing potential outcomes like death or neurological damage. Administering MICRhoGam (Choice B) to a sensitized woman is not recommended; it is only given post-abortion or ectopic pregnancy to prevent sensitization. Rh-immune globulin is not administered to the newborn (Choice C) in this case. Analyzing the maternal Direct Coombs’ test (Choice D) is unnecessary; instead, an Indirect Coombs’ test is used to assess sensitization. Therefore, the correct nursing action is to offer emotional support to the family, acknowledging the challenges they may face.

5. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

Correct answer: strain.

Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.

Similar Questions

A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the healthcare provider expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?
What are major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care?
Client self-determination is the primary focus of:
The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?
During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses