NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period during which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. Perimenopause typically lasts around five years. Climacteric is a term that describes the period when physiologic changes result in the cessation of a woman's reproductive ability and decreased sexual activity. This term applies to both genders. Menopause is the time when menstruation permanently stops. Postmenopause refers to the period after menopausal changes are complete. In this scenario, the woman's irregular menses indicate she is likely in the perimenopausal stage, experiencing hormonal fluctuations and changes.
2. When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?
- A. Iris
- B. Cornea
- C. Optic disc
- D. Conjunctiva
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.
3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?
- A. Scoliosis
- B. Osteoarthritis
- C. Rotator cuff lesions
- D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
4. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.
- A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
- B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
- C. Monitor respirations during administration.
- D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.
5. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
- A. refusal to walk
- B. not pulling to a standing position
- C. negative Trendelenburg sign
- D. negative Ortolani sign
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.
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