Nursing Elites

1. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Tender, distended abdomen
• B. Presence of fecal incontinence
• C. Incomplete development of the anus
• D. Infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

2. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
• B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
• C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
• D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.

3. A 30-year-old woman is experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
• D. Stay with the woman until help comes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to act swiftly. Asking the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit is the most appropriate initial intervention. Many individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry epinephrine auto-injectors, such as epi-pens, which can be life-saving in such situations. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is not indicated as the patient is breathing but short of breath, and CPR is not the first-line intervention for anaphylaxis. Checking for a pulse, though important, is not the initial priority in managing anaphylaxis. Staying with the woman until help arrives is essential for providing support and monitoring her condition, but confirming the availability of an emergency medical kit takes precedence to promptly address the anaphylactic reaction.

4. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:

• A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode
• B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed
• C. Administer antidysrhythmics PRN as prescribed
• D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily as prescribed is essential to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to a Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intra-abdominal pressure, hinder venous return, and elevate blood pressure, risking cardiac complications in a client recovering from a heart attack. Using a bedside commode might be useful to minimize exertion during toileting but does not directly address the risk of a Valsalva maneuver. Administering antidysrhythmics PRN is not the primary intervention for preventing a Valsalva maneuver; these medications are used to manage dysrhythmias if they occur. Keeping the client on strict bed rest is not the best option as early mobilization is encouraged in post-myocardial infarction recovery to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and muscle weakness.

5. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?

• A. Anesthesia reaction
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.

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