Nursing Elites

1. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Tender, distended abdomen
• B. Presence of fecal incontinence
• C. Incomplete development of the anus
• D. Infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

2. A 3-year-old had a hip spica cast applied 2 hours ago. In order to facilitate drying, the nurse should

• A. Expose the cast to air and turn the child frequently
• B. Use a heat lamp to reduce the drying time
• C. Handle the cast with the abductor bar
• D. Turn the child as little as possible

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After applying a hip spica cast, it is important to facilitate drying by exposing the cast to air and turning the child frequently. This helps promote even drying and prevents complications such as skin breakdown. Using a heat lamp can cause burns and is not recommended. Handling the cast with the abductor bar does not aid in drying the cast. Turning the child as little as possible is incorrect as regular turning is crucial to prevent complications.

3. The pediatric nurse caring for a 3-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) prepares a home care teaching plan for the caregivers on discharge. Which items will the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Apply splints and braces to facilitate muscle control.
• B. Buy toys that are appropriate for the child's abilities.
• C. Encourage the child to perform self-care tasks.
• D. Use skeletal muscle relaxants for short-term control.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When developing a discharge teaching plan for a child with cerebral palsy (CP), the nurse should focus on strategies to enhance the child's independence and functional abilities. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions to include in the teaching plan for a child with CP. Applying splints and braces can help facilitate muscle control and improve body functioning. Buying toys that are appropriate for the child's abilities can promote engagement and development. Encouraging the child to perform self-care tasks fosters independence and skill development. However, the use of skeletal muscle relaxants for short-term control is not typically a part of routine care for pediatric patients with CP. These medications are usually reserved for specific situations and are not a standard component of home care teaching plans for children with CP.

4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the mental status of a client admitted with possible organic brain disorder. Which of these questions will best assess the function of the client's recent memory?

• A. Name the year. What season is this? (pause for answer after each question)
• B. Subtract 7 from 100 and then subtract 7 from that. (pause for answer) Now continue to subtract 7 from the new number.
• C. I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen.
• D. What is this on my wrist? (point to your watch) Then ask, What is the purpose of it?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to perform a calculation that involves working memory and processing skills. This question not only assesses the recent memory but also evaluates attention and executive functioning. The choice 'I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen' assesses immediate recall rather than recent memory. Asking about the current year or season tests orientation rather than recent memory. Inquiring about the watch and its purpose assesses comprehension and judgment rather than recent memory.

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