the nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high risk patient which nursing action will be most effective
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient, the most effective nursing action is to place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. This position helps decrease the risk of aspiration as it prevents pooling of secretions and facilitates drainage. Turning and repositioning immobile patients every 2 hours is essential for preventing pressure ulcers and improving circulation but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Monitoring respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients is crucial to detect pneumonia early, but it does not directly prevent aspiration. Inserting a nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems may be necessary for nutritional support but does not address the risk of aspiration directly. Patients at high risk for aspiration include those with altered consciousness, difficulty swallowing, and those with nasogastric intubation, among others. Placing patients with altered consciousness in a side-lying position is a key intervention to reduce the risk of aspiration in this population. Other high-risk groups for aspiration include those who are seriously ill, have poor dentition, or are on acid-reducing medications.

2. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.

3. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

4. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.

5. The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the mother of a child following orchiopexy, which was performed on an outpatient basis. Which is a priority in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following orchiopexy, the priority in the plan of care for the child's mother is wound care. The most common complications associated with orchiopexy are bleeding and infection. Discharge instructions should focus on demonstrating wound cleansing and dressing, and teaching parents to recognize signs of infection like redness, warmth, swelling, or discharge. It is crucial to prevent movement of the testicles and avoid contamination of the suture line. While analgesics may be prescribed, pain control measures are not the priority among the options presented. Measurement of intake is not essential as the child is likely to resume normal eating habits. Cold and heat applications are not typical prescribed treatments for post-orchiopexy care.

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