NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. While auscultating a patient's lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs. How should the nurse document this finding?
- A. Inspiratory crackles at the bases
- B. Expiratory wheezes in both lungs
- C. Abnormal lung sounds in the apices of both lungs
- D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes
Correct answer: Inspiratory crackles at the bases
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Inspiratory crackles at the bases.' Crackles are low-pitched, bubbling sounds typically heard during inspiration, which aligns with the nurse's finding. Expiratory wheezes are high-pitched sounds and are not consistent with the described auscultation findings. The lower third of both lungs refers to the bases, not the apices, so option C is incorrect. Pleural friction rubs are grating sounds heard during both inspiration and expiration, unlike the described finding of only hearing the sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs.
2. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?
- A. “I have constant blurred vision.”
- B. “I can’t see on my left side.”
- C. “I have to turn my head to see my room.”
- D. “I have specks floating in my eyes.”
Correct answer: “I have to turn my head to see my room.”
Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.
3. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient’s lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
- A. Elevated serum calcium
- B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- C. Elevated serum vitamin D
- D. Low urine calcium
Correct answer: Elevated serum calcium
Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.
4. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
- A. compound fracture of the fibula
- B. a partial break in a long bone
- C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
- D. Colles fracture of the tibia
Correct answer: a partial break in a long bone
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
5. Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Hypotonic bowel sounds
- C. Abdominal tenderness and guarding
- D. Muscle twitching and finger numbness
Correct answer: Muscle twitching and finger numbness
Rationale: The correct answer is muscle twitching and finger numbness. These symptoms indicate hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany if not promptly addressed with calcium gluconate administration. Nausea and vomiting, hypotonic bowel sounds, and abdominal tenderness and guarding are important findings in acute pancreatitis but do not require the same urgent intervention as hypocalcemia to prevent potential severe complications.
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