NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. To palpate the liver during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse should
- A. put pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag
- B. elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing
- C. place the patient on the right side with the bed flat
- D. check the patient's post-biopsy coagulation studies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To palpate the liver effectively during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the patient should be positioned on the right side with the bed flat. This position helps to splint the biopsy site and allows for proper palpation of the liver. Elevating the head of the bed has no direct relevance to palpating the liver. Checking coagulation studies is done before the biopsy and is unrelated to palpation. Putting pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag is not an appropriate way to facilitate liver palpation as it does not provide the necessary support and stabilization needed for the procedure.
2. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?
- A. It is the correct dose
- B. The dose is too low
- C. The dose is too high
- D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day. This child weighs 30 kg, so the calculated dose would be 5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 150 mg/day. Since the prescription is for 25 mg 3 times a day, the total daily dose is 25 mg x 3 = 75 mg/day, which is lower than the calculated dose of 150 mg/day. Therefore, the prescribed dose of 25 mg 3 times a day is too low for this child. The dose should be adjusted to meet the correct dosage of 150 mg/day, which would be 50 mg 3 times a day. It is important not to titrate the dosage based on symptoms without consulting a physician, as this can lead to inappropriate medication administration.
3. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
- A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode
- B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed
- C. Administer antidysrhythmics PRN as prescribed
- D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily as prescribed is essential to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to a Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intra-abdominal pressure, hinder venous return, and elevate blood pressure, risking cardiac complications in a client recovering from a heart attack. Using a bedside commode might be useful to minimize exertion during toileting but does not directly address the risk of a Valsalva maneuver. Administering antidysrhythmics PRN is not the primary intervention for preventing a Valsalva maneuver; these medications are used to manage dysrhythmias if they occur. Keeping the client on strict bed rest is not the best option as early mobilization is encouraged in post-myocardial infarction recovery to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and muscle weakness.
4. Which oxygen delivery system would provide the highest concentrations of oxygen to the client?
- A. Venturi mask
- B. Partial rebreather mask
- C. Non-rebreather mask
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the non-rebreather mask. This oxygen delivery system has a one-way valve that prevents exhaled air from entering the reservoir bag and one or more valves covering the air holes on the face mask itself to prevent the inhalation of room air but allow exhalation of air. When a tight seal is achieved around the mask, up to 100% of oxygen is available. Choice A, the Venturi mask, delivers precise oxygen concentrations but not as high as the non-rebreather mask. Choice B, the partial rebreather mask, allows the client to rebreathe some exhaled air, resulting in lower oxygen concentrations than the non-rebreather mask. Choice D, the simple face mask, delivers low to moderate oxygen concentrations and is not designed to provide the highest concentrations like the non-rebreather mask.
5. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?
- A. Detached Retina
- B. Fovea Centralis
- C. Presbyopia
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.
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