Nursing Elites

1. While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by the mother shows that she understands the child's developmental needs?

• A. "I want to protect my child from any falls."?
• B. "I will set limits on exploring the house."?
• C. "I understand the need to use those new skills."?
• D. "I intend to keep control over our child."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is: "I understand the need to use those new skills."? This response indicates that the mother recognizes the importance of allowing the toddler to practice and develop new skills, supporting autonomy and exploration. Setting limits, protecting from falls, and intending to keep control go against the toddler's developmental needs. Toddlers at this stage require opportunities to explore, practice new skills, and gain independence to foster healthy development.

2. While caring for a client who has just come from surgery and is in the recovery room with an endotracheal tube in place, the nurse deflates the cuff on the tube and removes it. The client sits up in bed, grasps his throat, and begins to make wheezing sounds. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this situation?

• A. The client is choking on part of the tube
• B. The client has anxiety
• C. The client is having a laryngospasm
• D. The client is having a normal response from anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, some clients may experience a laryngospasm during emergence from anesthesia. A laryngospasm can lead to the closure of the laryngeal opening due to spasm of the vocal cords. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of wheezing and throat grasping are indicative of a laryngospasm rather than choking on the tube, anxiety, or a normal response from anesthesia. The nurse should act promptly to open the airway to aid breathing and consider administering muscle relaxants as necessary.

3. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:

• A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
• B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
• C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.

4. A client with schizophrenia seems to stop focusing during a conversation with a nurse and begins looking at the ceiling and talking to themselves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the interview at this point and resume later when the client is better able to concentrate
• B. Ask the client, 'Are you seeing something on the ceiling?'
• C. Tell the client, 'You seem to be looking at something on the ceiling. I see something there, too.'
• D. Continue the interview without commenting on the client's behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia experiences a break in reality like staring at the ceiling and talking to themselves, the nurse should ask directly about the hallucination, as stated in choice B. By doing so, the nurse can assess the situation, identify the client's needs, and evaluate any potential risk for injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stopping the interview (choice A) may not address the immediate concern of the hallucination. Providing false reassurance (choice C) or ignoring the behavior (choice D) does not actively address the client's altered perception of reality.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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