NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The parathyroid glands regulate calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus in the body. Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of parathyroid hormone, causing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated blood calcium levels, known as hypercalcemia. This puts individuals at risk of developing complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, osteoporosis, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. The other options, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia, are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is low sodium levels in the blood, hypocalcemia is low calcium levels, and hypermagnesemia is high magnesium levels, which are not typically seen in hyperparathyroidism.
2. As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?
- A. The Programmed Longevity Theory
- B. The Immunological Theory of Aging
- C. The Endocrine Theory
- D. The Rate of Living Theory
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.
3. The discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16-year-old admitted for complications associated with asthma. The client's mother has not participated in any of the discharge planning processes but has stated that she wants to be involved. Which of the following reasons might prohibit this mother from participating in discharge planning?
- A. The client is an emancipated minor
- B. The mother has to work and is unavailable
- C. The client has a job and a driver's license
- D. The mother does not speak English
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is that the client is an emancipated minor. Emancipated minors, even if they are under the age of 18, have the legal right to make decisions about their own healthcare and planning, which may include not wanting their parent involved in the discharge planning process. This status grants them independence from parental involvement in certain situations. The other choices are incorrect because the mother's work schedule, the client's job and possession of a driver's license, and the mother's language proficiency do not inherently prevent her from participating in the discharge planning process, unlike the legal status of being an emancipated minor.
4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
5. Albert B. is incontinent of urine. He also wears glasses and hearing aids. His ____________lead(s) to his risk for falls.
- A. incontinence and loss of vision
- B. loss of vision
- C. incontinence
- D. loss of hearing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Albert B. is at risk for falls due to two factors: his incontinence and his loss of vision. Loss of vision significantly impairs one's ability to navigate and avoid obstacles, thereby increasing the risk of falls. While incontinence is a risk factor for falls, the primary concern in this case is the loss of vision since it directly affects balance and safety. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of vision.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the key factor of impaired vision leading to the risk of falls.
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