Nursing Elites

1. A group of nurses who work on the quality assurance council of a unit have gathered to discuss ideas about how to educate their coworkers about Joint Commission requirements. Each of the nurses gives ideas, which are listed together without initial criticism. Eventually, all ideas on the list will be discussed as to their validity. This activity is known as:

• A. Optimizing
• B. Satisficing
• C. Brainstorming
• D. Centralizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Brainstorming is the process in which group members generate ideas without immediate criticism or evaluation. This allows for a free flow of creative suggestions. The ideas are then listed together for consideration and discussion of their validity at a later stage. Optimizing, although related to improving efficiency, does not specifically address the initial idea generation process. Satisficing refers to accepting a satisfactory or 'good enough' solution rather than seeking the best possible option, which is not reflective of the scenario described. Centralizing typically refers to consolidating decision-making authority rather than the collaborative idea generation process seen in brainstorming.

2. Which of the following interventions is necessary before insertion of an arterial line into the radial artery?

• A. Ensure that the client does not need surgery
• B. Assess the client's grip strength
• C. Perform an Allen test
• D. Check a serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before inserting an arterial line into the radial artery, it is crucial to perform an Allen test. The Allen test assesses the collateral circulation to the hand by compressing both the radial and ulnar arteries. By occluding the radial artery and releasing the ulnar artery, the nurse can check if the ulnar artery can adequately supply blood to the hand if the radial artery is cannulated. This step ensures that there is adequate circulation to the hand post-insertion of the arterial line. Choice A, ensuring that the client does not need surgery, is not directly related to the insertion of an arterial line and is not a necessary step before the procedure. Choice B, assessing grip strength, is not specific to the vascular status of the hand and does not provide information about the adequacy of collateral circulation. Choice D, checking a serum potassium level, is unrelated to the assessment of radial artery patency and collateral circulation, which are the primary concerns before arterial line insertion.

3. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

4. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?

• A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
• B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
• C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.

5. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

• A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
• B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
• C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
• D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

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