NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which method is most appropriate for managing moral distress in the workplace?
- A. Recognizing that life is unfair and nurses cannot meet every need of every client
- B. Declining to act when clients or visitors make requests that are not justifiable
- C. Developing a new policy that would address the problematic situation
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Moral distress involves negative feelings or frustration toward situations that are deemed unfair, unethical, or that cause the nurse to feel helpless in their work. It can lead to nurse burnout when ongoing issues are not resolved. The most appropriate method for managing moral distress is to develop new policies that address the problematic situations. By creating policies, nurses can work towards changing current standards and reducing the number of situations that lead to moral distress. Choices A and B are incorrect because recognizing life's unfairness and not taking action on unjustifiable requests do not actively address the root causes of moral distress or work towards resolving the issues.
2. An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:
- A. Don't worry. It's just a phase you will grow out of.
- B. Those are abnormal impulses. You should seek therapy.
- C. At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
- D. Having questions about sexuality is normal. Have you noticed any changes in the way this makes you feel about yourself?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.
3. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Constipation
- D. A prominent U wave on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
4. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
- A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
- B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
- C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
- D. Assign staff to be with the client at all times to help maintain control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.
5. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:
- A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
- B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
- C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.
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