Nursing Elites

1. Which statement by the client with chronic obstructive lung disease indicates an understanding of the major reason for the use of occasional pursed-lip breathing?

• A. ''This action of my lips helps to keep my airway open.''
• B. ''I can expel more air when I pucker up my lips to breathe out.''
• C. ''My mouth doesn't get as dry when I breathe with pursed lips.''
• D. ''By prolonging breathing out with pursed lips, the smaller areas in my lungs don't collapse.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have difficulty exhaling fully due to the weak alveolar walls from the disease process. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the airways during exhalation. This is the major reason for using pursed-lip breathing in individuals with chronic obstructive lung disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the main purpose of pursed-lip breathing, which is to prevent alveolar collapse and improve exhalation in these patients.

2. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

• A. Behavior
• B. Cognition
• C. Affect and mood
• D. Perceptual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

3. When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20
• D. 30

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

4. An adult's blood pressure reads 40/20. You place the patient in a Trendelenberg position before rechecking the blood pressure. What actions will you take to position the patient correctly?

• A. lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed
• B. raise the head of the bed up to about 60 to 75 degrees
• C. raise the head of the bed up to about 75 to 90 degrees
• D. raise the siderails and place the bed in the high position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a Trendelenberg position, used for low blood pressure, the correct action is to lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed. This positioning facilitates the return of blood to the heart and helps increase blood pressure. Option B, raising the head of the bed to 60 to 75 degrees, is incorrect as it is not the Trendelenberg position. Option C, raising the head of the bed to 75 to 90 degrees, is incorrect as it does not align with the Trendelenberg position. Option D, raising the siderails and placing the bed in the high position, is incorrect as it does not address the specific positioning required for the Trendelenberg position.

5. When performing a physical examination, safety must be considered to protect the examiner and the patient against the spread of infection. Which of these statements describes the most appropriate action the nurse would take when performing a physical examination?

• A. Washing one's hands after removing gloves is necessary, even if the gloves are still intact
• B. Hands are washed before and after every physical patient encounter
• C. Hands are washed before the examination of each body system to prevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another
• D. Gloves are worn throughout the entire examination to demonstrate concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when performing a physical examination is to wash their hands before and after every physical patient encounter. This practice helps prevent the spread of infection. Hands should also be washed after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions, and after contact with any equipment contaminated with body fluids. It is crucial to wash hands after removing gloves, even if the gloves appear intact. Choice A is incorrect because washing hands after removing gloves is necessary to ensure thorough hygiene. Choice C is incorrect because hands should be washed before and after every patient encounter, not just before examining each body system. Choice D is incorrect because gloves should be worn when there is potential contact with body fluids, but they do not need to be worn throughout the entire examination.

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