which statement by the client with chronic obstructive lung disease indicates an understanding of the major reason for the use of occasional pursed li
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. Which statement by the client with chronic obstructive lung disease indicates an understanding of the major reason for the use of occasional pursed-lip breathing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have difficulty exhaling fully due to the weak alveolar walls from the disease process. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the airways during exhalation. This is the major reason for using pursed-lip breathing in individuals with chronic obstructive lung disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the main purpose of pursed-lip breathing, which is to prevent alveolar collapse and improve exhalation in these patients.

2. In addition to standard precautions, the nurse caring for a patient with rubella would plan to implement what type of precautions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella is an illness transmitted by large-particle droplets, so the nurse should implement droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions. Airborne precautions are used for diseases spread through small particles in the air, such as tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola. Contact precautions are utilized for diseases transmitted by direct contact with the patient or their environment. Universal precautions and body substance isolations are part of the CDC's standard precautions recommendations, but do not specifically address the transmission route of rubella.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person's skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.

4. Match the abbreviation with the correct definition:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abbreviation 'ac' stands for 'ante cibum,' which means 'before meals.' 'Bid' means twice a day. 'Tid' means three times a day, and 'pc' means after meals. When interpreting medical abbreviations, it is crucial to understand their precise meanings to ensure accurate communication and patient care.

5. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

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