Nursing Elites

1. Which statement by the client with chronic obstructive lung disease indicates an understanding of the major reason for the use of occasional pursed-lip breathing?

• A. ''This action of my lips helps to keep my airway open.''
• B. ''I can expel more air when I pucker up my lips to breathe out.''
• C. ''My mouth doesn't get as dry when I breathe with pursed lips.''
• D. ''By prolonging breathing out with pursed lips, the smaller areas in my lungs don't collapse.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have difficulty exhaling fully due to the weak alveolar walls from the disease process. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the airways during exhalation. This is the major reason for using pursed-lip breathing in individuals with chronic obstructive lung disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the main purpose of pursed-lip breathing, which is to prevent alveolar collapse and improve exhalation in these patients.

2. A client is about to have a TENS unit attached for pain relief. Which of the following actions is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations.
• B. Connect the TENS unit before the client goes to bed for the night.
• C. Inform the client that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days.
• D. After treatment, inform the client that he may not use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When attaching a TENS unit for pain relief, it is essential to inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations. This is a common sensation experienced when using a TENS unit, but it should not cause muscle twitching. The therapeutic effects of a TENS unit usually last between 3 to 5 days. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to connect the TENS unit before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as stating that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days is inaccurate, as the effects typically last 3 to 5 days. Choice D is incorrect because there is no guideline suggesting that the client cannot use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks after treatment.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to auscultate the abdomen. How should they proceed?

• A. Warm the endpiece of the stethoscope by rubbing it between their hands.
• B. Ensure the patient is adequately covered and comfortable during the examination.
• C. Ensure that the diaphragm side of the stethoscope is in use.
• D. Check the room temperature and offer blankets to the patient if needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing to auscultate the abdomen, it is important to ensure the patient's comfort. The room should be warm to prevent shivering, which can interfere with sound clarity. Offering blankets to the patient if they feel cold helps maintain their comfort during the examination. The endpiece of the stethoscope should be warmed by rubbing it between the examiner's hands, not by placing it in warm water. It is important to use the diaphragm, not the bell, of the stethoscope to auscultate for bowel sounds. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, as it addresses the patient's comfort and the room temperature, which are essential for a successful abdominal auscultation.

4. A 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension was recently changed to a new antihypertensive drug. He reports feeling dizzy at times. How would the nurse evaluate his blood pressure?

• A. Blood pressure and pulse should be recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.
• B. The patient should be directed to walk around the room and his blood pressure assessed after this activity.
• C. Blood pressure and pulse are assessed at the beginning and at the end of the examination.
• D. Blood pressure is taken on the right arm and then 5 minutes later on the left arm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic vital signs should be taken when the person is hypertensive or is taking antihypertensive medications, when the person reports fainting or syncope, or when volume depletion is suspected. The blood pressure and pulse readings are recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.

5. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

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