Nursing Elites

1. Which of these is a correctly stated outcome goal written by the nurse?

• A. The client will walk 2 miles daily by March 19
• B. The client will understand how to give insulin by discharge
• C. The client will regain their former state of health by April 1
• D. The client achieve desired mobility by May 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Outcome goals should be SMART, i.e., Specific, Measurable, Appropriate, Realistic, and Timely. Option A is the only outcome that has a specific behavior (walks daily), with measurable performance criteria (2 miles), and a time estimate for goal attainment (by March 19). Option B lacks specificity in terms of what 'understand how to give insulin' entails, and the timeline is vague ('by discharge'). Option C is not measurable or specific about what 'regain their former state of health' means. Option D does not provide a specific behavior or measurable criteria for 'desired mobility,' and the timeline is the only element that is time-bound.

2. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except:

• A. Institute complete bed rest for the client
• B. Assess uterine tone to determine condition
• C. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
• D. Measure and record blood loss each shift

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with placenta previa has part of the placenta covering some or all of the cervical opening. Performing a vaginal exam for placenta previa may cause significant bleeding and should be avoided unless directed by a physician, and preparations are made for emergency delivery. **Choice A** is correct as complete bed rest is essential to decrease the risk of further bleeding. **Choice B** is appropriate as assessing uterine tone helps in determining the condition of the uterus and can provide important information for the healthcare team. **Choice D** is also a necessary intervention as monitoring and recording blood loss is crucial in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment.

3. A physician has ordered that a client must be placed in a high Fowler's position. How does the nurse position this client?

• A. The client is placed face-down
• B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
• C. The client lies on his back with the knees drawn up toward the chest
• D. The client is sitting with the backrest at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high Fowler's position is a modification of the semi-Fowler's position, in which the client is seated with arms resting at the sides or in the lap. The high Fowler's position requires that the client's head and upper chest are elevated, and the backrest is at a 90-degree angle. This position supports breathing and appropriate chest wall movement, making it easier for the client to breathe. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a high Fowler's position involves the client being in a sitting position with the backrest at a 90-degree angle, not being face-down, lying with the head lower than the feet, or lying on the back with knees drawn up towards the chest.

4. During an examination, a nurse notices a draining ulceration on a patient's lower leg. What is the most appropriate action in this situation?

• A. Wash hands and then contact the physician.
• B. Continue to examine the ulceration and then wash hands.
• C. Wash hands, put on gloves, and continue with the examination of the ulceration.
• D. Wash hands, proceed with the rest of the physical examination, and perform the examination of the leg ulceration last.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action is to wash hands, put on gloves, and then continue examining the ulceration. Wearing gloves is crucial when there is a possibility of contact with body fluids, as in the case of a draining ulceration. Contacting the physician is not necessary at this point; the immediate focus should be on proper infection control by washing hands and wearing gloves. Changing the order of the examination is not recommended as it is important to follow a systematic approach to avoid missing any crucial assessments.

5. Which of the following lists the recommended sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment when preparing to leave a patient's room?

• A. Gown, goggles, mask, gloves, and exit the room.
• B. Gloves, wash hands, remove gown, mask, and goggles.
• C. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.
• D. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. Gloves should always be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. Following the removal of gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and finally washing hands is recommended. Choice A is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice B is incorrect as the sequence is not in the recommended order. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed before goggles.

Similar Questions