a patients nursing diagnosis is insomnia the desired outcome is patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by october 31 on november 1 a revi a patients nursing diagnosis is insomnia the desired outcome is patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by october 31 on november 1 a revi
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1. A patient’s nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: 'Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31.' On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. Which evaluation should be documented?

Correct answer: Never demonstrated

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Never demonstrated.' Despite the patient sleeping a total of 6 hours daily, it is not achieved in one uninterrupted session at night as per the desired outcome. The patient's habit of taking a 2-hour afternoon nap also affects the evaluation. Therefore, the outcome should be evaluated as 'Never demonstrated.' Choice A, 'Consistently demonstrated,' is incorrect because the desired outcome of sleeping for a minimum of 5 hours nightly in one session is not met. Choice B, 'Often demonstrated,' is incorrect as the patient's sleep pattern does not consistently align with the desired outcome. Choice C, 'Sometimes demonstrated,' is also incorrect as the patient's sleep pattern does not meet the specific criteria set in the desired outcome.

2. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: Gastric lavage

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

3. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

Correct answer: The client's IV is infiltrated

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.

4. Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?

Correct answer: Contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order. It is crucial to ensure that the client receives the necessary care as prescribed. Following up with the department reinforces the importance of the order and increases the likelihood of prompt action. Option A is incorrect because escalating the situation to filing a complaint should be a last resort after all other communication attempts have failed. Option B is not the best course of action as the first step should be to ensure proper communication within the healthcare team. Option C is not the priority in this scenario, as the immediate concern is to address the delay in the physical therapy consult.

5. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client’s behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: A defense against underlying depression and fear

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

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