Nursing Elites

1. What term is used to describe the sexual response changes among middle-aged men?

• A. Menopause
• B. Climacteric
• C. Generativity
• D. Maturity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Climacteric.' Climacteric specifically refers to the period in middle-aged men characterized by sexual response changes, such as delayed arousal. Menopause, choice A, is incorrect as it is specific to women and marks the cessation of menstrual periods. Generativity, choice C, is unrelated as it refers to the concern for guiding the next generation. Maturity, choice D, is too broad and generally refers to reaching the adult stage of development, not specifically addressing sexual response changes in middle-aged men.

2. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

3. Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?

• A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
• B. Embolic stroke
• C. Sexual abuse
• D. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation, and self-neglect. In this scenario, given Madge's age, history of dementia, and the presence of unexplained bruising in sensitive areas, sexual abuse must be considered as a major concern. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a platelet disorder that presents with excessive bruising and bleeding, but it is less likely in this case as the bruising pattern is suggestive of a different cause. Embolic stroke is a neurological condition that typically presents with sudden onset neurological deficits and is not related to the observed bruising. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP) is a common issue in elderly residents but would not manifest as bruising in specific areas like the breasts and genitals.

4. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?

• A. Collect a stool sample
• B. Complete an abdominal assessment
• C. Administer an anti-nausea medication
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client reports symptoms like nausea and constipation is to complete an abdominal assessment. Assessment is crucial as it involves the systematic collection of data to understand the client's condition. By assessing the abdomen, the nurse can gather essential information to make a nursing diagnosis and develop a care plan. Collecting a stool sample (Choice A) may be necessary but comes after the assessment to confirm findings. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice C) addresses symptoms but does not address the underlying cause without a thorough assessment. Notifying the physician (Choice D) should come after the assessment to provide a complete picture of the client's condition.

5. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

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