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NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. What term is used to describe the sexual response changes among middle-aged men?
- A. Menopause
- B. Climacteric
- C. Generativity
- D. Maturity
Correct answer: Climacteric
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Climacteric.' Climacteric specifically refers to the period in middle-aged men characterized by sexual response changes, such as delayed arousal. Menopause, choice A, is incorrect as it is specific to women and marks the cessation of menstrual periods. Generativity, choice C, is unrelated as it refers to the concern for guiding the next generation. Maturity, choice D, is too broad and generally refers to reaching the adult stage of development, not specifically addressing sexual response changes in middle-aged men.
2. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
- B. A widened chest cavity
- C. Clubbed fingers
- D. An increased risk of cardiac failure
Correct answer: Clubbed fingers
Rationale: 1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.
3. A terminally ill client repeatedly talks about her son’s upcoming wedding and how much she wants to attend. Which stage of the Kübler-Ross theory of death and dying is the client displaying?
- A. Anger
- B. Denial
- C. Bargaining
- D. Acceptance
Correct answer: Bargaining
Rationale: The client is displaying the stage of bargaining in the Kübler-Ross theory of death and dying. During the bargaining stage, individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. In this scenario, the client expressing a desire to attend her son's wedding and discussing it frequently reflects a form of bargaining for additional time to be present for the event. Anger, on the other hand, involves extreme expressions of emotion ranging from irritation to rage. Denial is characterized by an inability to accept the reality of the situation. Acceptance signifies coming to terms with the circumstances and may lead to decreased interest in people and surroundings.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
- A. Narrowed QRS complex
- B. Shortened “PR” interval
- C. Tall peaked “T” waves
- D. Prominent “U” waves
Correct answer: Tall peaked “T” waves
Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened “PR” interval, and prominent “U” waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.
5. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
- A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
- B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
- C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
- D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.
Correct answer: The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.
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