what term is used to describe the sexual response changes among middle aged men
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank

1. What term is used to describe the sexual response changes among middle-aged men?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Climacteric.' Climacteric specifically refers to the period in middle-aged men characterized by sexual response changes, such as delayed arousal. Menopause, choice A, is incorrect as it is specific to women and marks the cessation of menstrual periods. Generativity, choice C, is unrelated as it refers to the concern for guiding the next generation. Maturity, choice D, is too broad and generally refers to reaching the adult stage of development, not specifically addressing sexual response changes in middle-aged men.

2. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

3. Efforts by healthcare facilities to reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) include an awareness of which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Efforts to reduce hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) involve being aware that the Joint Commission considers death or serious injury resulting from HAIs a sentinel event, which must be reported. While more than 20 states require reporting of HAI rates to the CDC, it is not a nationwide CDC requirement. The gastrointestinal tract is not a specific common site for HAIs; rather, bacteria are the primary cause. Ensuring restraints are properly secured is important for patient safety but not directly related to reducing HAIs.

4. Your patient had a stroke, or CVA, five years ago. The resident still has right-sided weakness. You are ready to transfer the resident from the bed to the wheelchair. The wheelchair should be positioned at the _____________.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The wheelchair should be positioned at the head of the bed on the resident's left side. This positioning allows the resident to use their stronger left side to assist with the transfer, compensating for the right-sided weakness. Placing the wheelchair at the head of the bed on the patient's right side (Choice A) would not utilize the stronger left side, which is crucial for the transfer. Similarly, positioning the wheelchair at the bottom of the bed on either side (Choices C and D) would not facilitate optimal assistance from the resident's stronger side during the transfer process.

5. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment. The correct action by the nurse is reflected by which statement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should organize the assessment to minimize the patient's need to change positions frequently, ensuring efficiency and comfort. It is essential to perform the examination from both sides of the bed to facilitate a comprehensive assessment. Examining tender or painful areas last can help reduce patient discomfort and anxiety. The examination sequence should be flexible, taking into account the patient's age, condition, and specific needs. This approach allows for a tailored and patient-centered assessment, optimizing the quality of care provided.

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