Nursing Elites

1. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?

• A. The medication will reduce the risk of aspiration.
• B. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
• C. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
• D. The medication will decrease nausea and improve appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.

2. Which response would best assist the chemically impaired client in dealing with issues of guilt?

• A. Addiction usually causes people to feel guilty. Don't worry, it is a typical response due to your drinking behavior.
• B. What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?
• C. Don't focus on your guilty feelings. These feelings will only lead you to drinking and taking drugs.
• D. You've caused a great deal of pain to your family and close friends, so it will take time to undo all the things you've done.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is, 'What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?' This response encourages the client to reflect on their actions, identify sources of guilt, and develop a plan to address and reduce these feelings constructively. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's guilt as typical, potentially invalidating their emotions. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests avoiding guilty feelings by turning to substance use, which is counterproductive. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the negative consequences of the client's actions without offering a constructive way to address and alleviate guilt.

3. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Tender, distended abdomen
• B. Presence of fecal incontinence
• C. Incomplete development of the anus
• D. Infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

4. A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for a liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Partial thromboplastin time
• B. Prothrombin time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hemoglobin.' Hemoglobin levels are not indicative of coagulation status but are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and C are all laboratory tests that assess coagulation. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and prothrombin time (PT) evaluate different aspects of the coagulation cascade, while platelet count is essential for assessing primary hemostasis. Therefore, in the context of evaluating coagulation, hemoglobin is not the appropriate choice.

5. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?

• A. Increased anticoagulant use
• B. Increased risk of falls
• C. Brain atrophy
• D. Inconsistent care giving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.

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