which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine zantac for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.

2. Using the illustrated technique, the healthcare provider is assessing for which finding in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The technique for palpation for chest expansion is shown in the illustrated technique. Reduced chest expansion would be noted on palpation of a patient's chest with COPD. Hyperresonance would be assessed through percussion, not palpation. Accessory muscle use and tripod positioning would be assessed by inspection, not palpation.

3. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.

4. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.

5. A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client's temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the priority nursing goal for a client with renal calculi experiencing moderate to severe flank pain and nausea should be to manage pain. Pain management is crucial as it alleviates suffering, improves comfort, and enhances the quality of life for the client. In the case of ureteral colic from renal calculi, the cornerstone of management is effective pain control. Prompt analgesia, typically achieved with parenteral narcotics or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), is essential to provide relief and facilitate the passage of the calculi. While maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance is important in clients with renal calculi, addressing pain takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate well-being. Controlling nausea and preventing urinary tract infections are also important aspects of care, but they are secondary to managing the primary concern of pain in this urgent situation.

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