Nursing Elites

1. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?

• A. The medication will reduce the risk of aspiration.
• B. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
• C. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
• D. The medication will decrease nausea and improve appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.

2. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed?

• A. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber
• B. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber
• C. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration
• D. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned if 400 mL of blood is observed in the collection chamber as it may indicate the patient is at risk of developing hypovolemic shock. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber is expected initially after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. While pain with deep inspiration should be treated, it is not as urgent as the risk of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema is not uncommon in a patient with pneumothorax and is usually harmless. However, a large amount of blood in the collection chamber is a more critical finding that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

3. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Prepare the child for an X-ray of the upper airways
• B. Examine the child's throat
• C. Collect a sputum specimen
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the child's status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.

4. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Nutrition
• B. Elimination
• C. Activity
• D. Safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, safety is a critical priority. The nurse must address precautions to prevent suicide as part of the care plan. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm associated with depression. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent self-harm or suicide is the priority intervention. Addressing nutrition, elimination, and activity can follow once the client's safety is assured.

5. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?

• A. Induce vomiting
• B. Hold the next dose of Lithium
• C. Administer an antiemetic
• D. Give the next dose of Lithium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the next dose of Lithium. The blood lithium value of 1.7 mcg/L exceeds the therapeutic range of 0.5-1.5 mcg/L, indicating potential toxicity. Holding the next dose is crucial to prevent further accumulation of lithium in the bloodstream. Inducing vomiting is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to prevent further absorption of lithium. Administering an antiemetic is not the priority in lithium toxicity. Giving the next dose of lithium would exacerbate the toxicity and should be avoided.

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