NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?
- A. It is the correct dose
- B. The dose is too low
- C. The dose is too high
- D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day. This child weighs 30 kg, so the calculated dose would be 5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 150 mg/day. Since the prescription is for 25 mg 3 times a day, the total daily dose is 25 mg x 3 = 75 mg/day, which is lower than the calculated dose of 150 mg/day. Therefore, the prescribed dose of 25 mg 3 times a day is too low for this child. The dose should be adjusted to meet the correct dosage of 150 mg/day, which would be 50 mg 3 times a day. It is important not to titrate the dosage based on symptoms without consulting a physician, as this can lead to inappropriate medication administration.
2. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
3. The physician has decided to perform a thoracentesis based on Mr. R's assessment. Which of the following actions from the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Instruct the client not to talk during the procedure
- B. Assist the client to sit upright or slightly lean forward
- C. Insert a 20-gauge needle just above the 4th intercostal space
- D. Connect the needle to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to talk during the procedure. This is important to prevent air from being drawn into the pleural space during the thoracentesis. Choice B is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright or slightly leaning forward during the procedure to facilitate access to the pleural space. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not perform the thoracentesis procedure, which involves inserting a needle into the pleural space - this is the physician's responsibility. Choice D is incorrect as connecting the needle to suction to remove fluid is not the appropriate procedure for a thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is typically done to remove fluid or air for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not to connect to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space.
4. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6�F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first?
- A. Codeine
- B. Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn). Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia to reduce mortality. While providing symptomatic relief with medications like Codeine for cough, Guaifenesin for mucus clearance, and Acetaminophen for fever and pain is important, the priority should be to start antibiotic therapy to target the underlying infection. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an appropriate choice for treating severe community-acquired pneumonia caused by pneumococcal organisms.
5. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit after surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side. The nurse should place the infant in which best position at this time?
- A. Prone position
- B. On the stomach
- C. Left lateral position
- D. Right lateral position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side, the nurse should position the infant carefully to ensure comfort and prevent complications. Placing the infant in the prone position or on the stomach is not recommended as it may cause rubbing of the surgical site against the mattress. The optimal position for the infant is the left lateral position, away from the surgical repair site, to minimize the risk of trauma. Placing the infant on the right lateral position would be contraindicated as it is on the side of the repair. Additionally, positioning the infant upright on the back can help prevent airway obstruction by secretions, blood, or the tongue. Therefore, the correct choice is to place the infant in the left lateral position to promote safety and comfort post cleft lip surgery.
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