NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. The nurse is caring for a client in the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.). Which finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Confusion
- B. Loss of half of the visual field
- C. Shallow respirations
- D. Tonic-clonic seizures
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.), respiratory muscles are affected, leading to shallow respirations. Confusion is not typically associated with A.L.S. Loss of half of the visual field suggests a neurological issue unrelated to A.L.S., while tonic-clonic seizures are not commonly seen in A.L.S. patients. Shallow respirations are a hallmark sign of respiratory muscle weakness in A.L.S. due to the degeneration of motor neurons.
2. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer both drugs.
- B. Administer the spironolactone.
- C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
- D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
3. What should the nurse in the emergency department do first for a new patient who is vomiting blood?
- A. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter.
- B. Draw blood for coagulation studies.
- C. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations.
- D. Place the patient in the supine position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's initial action should focus on assessing the patient's hemodynamic status by checking vital signs like blood pressure, heart rate, and respirations. This assessment will help determine the patient's immediate needs and guide further interventions. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are important steps, but they can follow the initial assessment of vital signs. Placing the patient in the supine position can be risky without first assessing the patient's vital signs, as aspiration is a concern. Therefore, assessing vital signs is the priority to ensure appropriate and timely care for the patient.
4. A patient diagnosed with alopecia would be described as having:
- A. body lice
- B. lack of ear lobes
- C. Indigestion
- D. hair loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'hair loss.' Alopecia is a medical term that specifically refers to the condition of hair loss, usually in patches or all over the body. Choice A, 'body lice,' refers to a parasitic infestation and is not related to alopecia. Choice B, 'lack of ear lobes,' is completely unrelated to the term alopecia, which is solely about hair loss. Choice C, 'Indigestion,' has no connection to alopecia as it pertains to digestive issues, not hair loss. Therefore, the correct description for a patient diagnosed with alopecia is 'hair loss.'
5. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?
- A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
- B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
- C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
- D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.
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