NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?
- A. 60 microdrops/minute
- B. 20 microdrops/minute
- C. 30 microdrops/minute
- D. 40 microdrops/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair. Which statement should the nurse make to the mother?
- A. You should use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle.
- B. You need to use a plastic spoon to feed the child.
- C. You can allow the child to use a pacifier but only for 30 minutes at a time.
- D. You need to monitor the child's temperature for signs of infection using an oral thermometer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a cleft palate repair, it is crucial to use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle to feed them appropriately. The mother should be instructed to give the child baby food or baby food mixed with water. It is important to avoid introducing straws, pacifiers, spoons, or fingers into the child's mouth for 7 to 10 days post-surgery to prevent complications. The use of a pacifier should be avoided for at least 2 weeks following the surgical repair to promote proper healing. Additionally, taking oral temperatures should be avoided, and alternative temperature monitoring methods should be utilized to reduce the risk of infection. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect because they could potentially lead to complications or hinder the child's recovery after cleft palate repair.
3. The nurse is discussing negativism with the parents of a 30-month-old child. How should the nurse advise the parents to best respond to this behavior?
- A. Reprimand the child and give a 15-minute 'time out'
- B. Maintain a permissive attitude for this behavior
- C. Use patience and a sense of humor to deal with this behavior
- D. Assert authority over the child through limit setting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Use patience and a sense of humor to deal with this behavior. The nurse should help the parents understand that negativism is a normal part of a toddler's growth towards autonomy. Reacting with patience and humor can help diffuse the situation and maintain a positive relationship with the child. Reprimanding the child and giving a 'time out' (Choice A) may not be effective for addressing negativism and can lead to power struggles. Maintaining a permissive attitude (Choice B) may reinforce negative behavior. Asserting authority through limit setting (Choice D) may be necessary in some situations, but using patience and humor is a more effective initial approach for handling negativism.
4. A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT:
- A. Hypotriglyceridemia
- B. Abdominal hernia
- C. Anorexia
- D. Peritonitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peritoneal dialysis poses risks of various complications, including abdominal hernia, anorexia, peritonitis, and other issues. However, hypotriglyceridemia is not a common complication associated with peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should focus on educating the client about the risks of developing peritonitis, abdominal hernias, anorexia, low back pain, and abdominal bleeding. Monitoring triglyceride levels is essential for managing lipid disorders but is not directly linked to peritoneal dialysis complications.
5. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$1/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access