NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site?
- A. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis
- B. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water
- C. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excess secretions from the tracheostomy tube can collect near the stomal opening and cause skin breakdown. Management of secretions through regular suctioning will keep the area clean and dry, minimizing skin irritation. Choice B, cleansing the site daily with povidone-iodine and water, is incorrect as it may lead to skin irritation due to the harshness of povidone-iodine. Choice C, avoiding tube ties to secure the tube, is also incorrect as securing the tube is essential for stability. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as managing secretions through suctioning is crucial in preventing skin irritation.
2. A healthcare professional has just received a medication order that is not legible. Which statement best reflects assertive communication?
- A. I cannot give this medication as it is written. I have no idea what you mean.
- B. Would you please clarify what you have written so I am sure I am reading it correctly?
- C. I am having difficulty reading your handwriting. It would save me time if you would be more careful.
- D. Please print in the future so I do not have to spend extra time attempting to read your writing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assertive communication respects the rights and responsibilities of both parties. Choice B is the best example of assertive communication in this scenario. It addresses the issue directly by requesting clarification without blaming or devaluing the prescriber. This approach shows concern for safe practice and acknowledges the importance of clear communication in healthcare. Choices A, C, and D either involve self-depreciation, blaming the prescriber, or making demands without a respectful request for clarification, making them less effective in promoting effective communication and safe patient care.
3. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
- A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
- B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
- C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
- D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.
4. A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Back Pain
- D. Difficulty Urinating
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Flomax (Tamsulosin) is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in the elderly, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. This side effect can result in dizziness, falls, and injury, especially concerning for a patient living in an upstairs apartment. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and back pain are less commonly associated with Flomax use, while difficulty urinating is a symptom that Flomax is intended to improve in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.
5. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
- B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
- C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
- D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.
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