NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
- A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
- B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
- C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
- D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.
2. The nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from Vietnam. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Hepatitis testing
- B. Tuberculosis screening
- C. Contraceptive teaching
- D. Colonoscopy information
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis (TB) is prevalent in many parts of Asia, including Vietnam, and the incidence of TB is higher in immigrants from Vietnam compared to the general U.S. population. Conducting tuberculosis screening is crucial to identify and address any cases promptly, especially in a community with recent immigrants from Vietnam. While teaching about contraceptive use, providing colonoscopy information, and testing for hepatitis may be relevant for certain individuals in the community, they are not as universally important as tuberculosis screening due to the increased risk of TB among Vietnamese immigrants.
3. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Performing a chest x-ray via stretcher
- B. Obtaining blood cultures from two sites
- C. Administering Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV
- D. Inserting an Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.
4. Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Hypotonic bowel sounds
- C. Abdominal tenderness and guarding
- D. Muscle twitching and finger numbness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is muscle twitching and finger numbness. These symptoms indicate hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany if not promptly addressed with calcium gluconate administration. Nausea and vomiting, hypotonic bowel sounds, and abdominal tenderness and guarding are important findings in acute pancreatitis but do not require the same urgent intervention as hypocalcemia to prevent potential severe complications.
5. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
- A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
- B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
- C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
- D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.
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