Nursing Elites

1. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?

• A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
• B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
• C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
• D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.

2. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry?

• A. A client with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. A client with unstable angina
• C. A client with sinus rhythm and PVCs
• D. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telemetry is used to monitor the cardiac rhythms of clients with potentially unstable conditions or those rhythms that affect activities. Clients with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia require continuous monitoring to detect any potential life-threatening dysrhythmias. Unstable angina can be monitored in a telemetry unit, but syncope with potential cardiac causes takes precedence. Clients with sinus rhythm and PVCs may not necessitate telemetry unless there are further indications of instability. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago is typically monitored in an intensive care unit rather than a telemetry unit.

3. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Sudden dizziness
• C. Mask-like facial expression
• D. Stooped posture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sudden dizziness.' Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of ropinirole that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole belongs to the drug class of dopamine agonists, which mimic dopamine in the brain (Parkinson's Disease is characterized by a lack of dopamine). 'Slurred speech' is not a common side effect of ropinirole. 'Mask-like facial expression' and 'Stooped posture' are more associated with the progression of Parkinson's Disease itself rather than a side effect of ropinirole.

4. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer both drugs.
• B. Administer the spironolactone.
• C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
• D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

5. The parents of a newborn have been told that their child was born with bladder exstrophy, and the parents ask the nurse about this condition. Which explanation, given by the parents, indicates understanding of this condition?

• A. ''It's a hereditary disorder that occurs in every other generation.''
• B. ''It is caused by the use of medications taken by the mother during pregnancy.''
• C. ''It is a condition in which the urinary bladder is abnormally located in the pelvic cavity.''
• D. ''It's an extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital anomaly characterized by the extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. The cause of bladder exstrophy is not precisely known, but it is believed to be due to a developmental abnormality during embryogenesis. The condition is more common in male newborns. Choice A is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not a hereditary disorder that occurs in every other generation. Choice B is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not caused by medications taken by the mother during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the condition inaccurately; it is not just an abnormal location of the bladder in the pelvic cavity, but rather an extrusion of the bladder outside the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.

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