Nursing Elites

1. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?

• A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
• B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
• C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
• D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.

2. Which patient is at risk for developing oral candidiasis, a type of stomatitis?

• A. A 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic
• B. A 35-year-old man who has had HIV for 6 years
• C. A 40-year-old man who is undergoing chemotherapy
• D. An 80-year-old woman with dentures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic. This patient has multiple risk factors for developing oral candidiasis, including older age, being in a long-term care facility, and taking antibiotics. Candidiasis can be caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy (such as chemotherapy), older age, living in a long-term care facility, diabetes, having dentures, and poor oral hygiene. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for oral candidiasis compared to the correct answer.

3. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts.
• B. Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts.
• C. Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
• D. Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.

4. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

• A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
• B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
• C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
• D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.

5. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?

• A. Nadolol (Corgard)
• B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
• C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
• D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 �F (15 and 30 �C) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.

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