Nursing Elites

1. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?

• A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
• B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
• C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
• D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.

2. When taking a patient’s history, she mentions being depressed and dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

• A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
• B. Calcitonin
• C. Pergolide mesylate (Permax)
• D. Verapamil (Calan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amitriptyline (Elavil) as it is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used to treat symptoms of depression and anxiety disorders. Amitriptyline works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain to improve mood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Calcitonin is a hormone used in the treatment of osteoporosis; Pergolide mesylate is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease; Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not mental health disorders.

3. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?

• A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Infectious mononucleosis
• D. Norovirus infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.

4. The mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair 4 days ago is receiving home care instructions. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instruction?

• A. ''I will use a short nipple on the bottle.''
• B. ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.''
• C. ''I can give my child the pacifier in 2 weeks.''
• D. ''I may give my baby food mixed with water.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.'' After a cleft palate repair, the child should avoid straws, pacifiers, spoons, and fingers near the mouth for 7 to 10 days to prevent injury to the surgical site. Allowing the child to use a straw can create negative pressure in the mouth, potentially disrupting the healing process. The other options are appropriate postoperative instructions for a child who had a cleft palate repair and do not pose a risk to the surgical site.

5. A healthcare provider calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the healthcare provider most likely observed?

• A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to stimuli.
• B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.
• C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the healthcare provider hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs.
• D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.' Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Clinical signs and symptoms for pulmonary embolism are nonspecific; therefore, patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism"?because of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, or chest pain or the presence of risk factors for pulmonary embolism"?must undergo diagnostic tests until the diagnosis is ascertained or eliminated or an alternative diagnosis is confirmed. Choices A, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with a pulmonary embolism, making them incorrect.

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