Nursing Elites

1. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?

• A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
• B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
• C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
• D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.

2. A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

• A. Deep breathing techniques to increase oxygen levels.
• B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
• C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization.
• D. Decrease CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (Choice A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (Choice B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (Choice D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.

3. A patient has been taking mood stabilizing medication but is afraid of needles. They ask the nurse what medication would NOT require regular lab testing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
• B. Clozapine (Clozaril)
• C. Lithium
• D. Risperidone (Risperdal)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Risperidone (Risperdal) because it is the only medication among the options that does not require regular lab testing. Risperidone is not associated with the need for routine blood draws to monitor medication levels or potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C (Valproic Acid, Clozapine, Lithium) are all known to require frequent lab monitoring due to various reasons such as potential toxicity, therapeutic drug levels, or adverse effects on certain organ functions. Therefore, considering the patient's fear of needles and the desire to avoid frequent blood tests, Risperidone would be the most suitable option.

4. Which of the following signs is NOT indicative of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Decreased level of consciousness
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Sluggish pupil dilation
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. Common signs of increased intracranial pressure include decreased level of consciousness, sluggish pupil dilation, abnormal respirations, and projectile vomiting. However, an increased heart rate is not a typical sign associated with increased intracranial pressure. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize these signs early to prevent severe consequences such as brain herniation.

5. A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Back Pain
• D. Difficulty Urinating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Flomax (Tamsulosin) is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in the elderly, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. This side effect can result in dizziness, falls, and injury, especially concerning for a patient living in an upstairs apartment. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and back pain are less commonly associated with Flomax use, while difficulty urinating is a symptom that Flomax is intended to improve in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.

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