Nursing Elites

1. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?

• A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
• B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
• C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
• D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.

2. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?

• A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
• B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
• C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
• D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (Choice A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (Choice B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (Choice C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.

3. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

• A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
• B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• C. Lactated Ringer's
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

4. Which patient is at risk for developing oral candidiasis, a type of stomatitis?

• A. A 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic
• B. A 35-year-old man who has had HIV for 6 years
• C. A 40-year-old man who is undergoing chemotherapy
• D. An 80-year-old woman with dentures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic. This patient has multiple risk factors for developing oral candidiasis, including older age, being in a long-term care facility, and taking antibiotics. Candidiasis can be caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy (such as chemotherapy), older age, living in a long-term care facility, diabetes, having dentures, and poor oral hygiene. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for oral candidiasis compared to the correct answer.

5. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?

• A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
• B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
• C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
• D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.

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