NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?
- A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
- B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
- C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
- D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.
2. When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Tremors
- B. Low Urine Output
- C. Exaggerated arm movements
- D. Risk for Falls
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.
3. The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Temperature
- C. Activity level
- D. Albumin level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. In this case, monitoring the albumin level is crucial to assess the patient's fluid balance and potential for edema. While hemoglobin, temperature, and activity level are important parameters to monitor in a patient's assessment, they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms of toxic hepatitis and edema development. Therefore, the correct choice is the albumin level.
4. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?
- A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
- B. Platelet count of 150,000
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.
5. To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor
- A. bilirubin levels.
- B. ammonia levels.
- C. potassium levels.
- D. prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with severe cirrhosis and bleeding esophageal varices, monitoring ammonia levels is crucial. Severe liver dysfunction impairs the metabolism of protein in the GI tract, leading to increased ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Monitoring bilirubin levels is important for assessing liver function and jaundice but may not directly reflect the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices. Potassium levels are important but not the most critical in this scenario. Prothrombin time is essential for evaluating coagulation status but does not directly relate to the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices in this patient.
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