Nursing Elites

1. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?

• A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
• B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
• C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
• D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.

2. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed?

• A. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber
• B. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber
• C. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration
• D. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned if 400 mL of blood is observed in the collection chamber as it may indicate the patient is at risk of developing hypovolemic shock. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber is expected initially after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. While pain with deep inspiration should be treated, it is not as urgent as the risk of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema is not uncommon in a patient with pneumothorax and is usually harmless. However, a large amount of blood in the collection chamber is a more critical finding that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

3. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week.
• B. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
• C. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
• D. I'll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if Im feeling better in a couple weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia.

4. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

• A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
• B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
• C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
• D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.

5. Which of the following is the most common type of malignant brain tumor in the United States?

• A. Meningioma
• B. Glioblastoma multiforme
• C. Acoustic neuroma
• D. Pituitary adenoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common malignant brain tumor in the United States, accounting for a significant portion of cases. It is known for its aggressive nature and poor prognosis. Surgical resection, followed by radiation and chemotherapy, is the standard treatment approach for glioblastoma multiforme. Meningioma, acoustic neuroma, and pituitary adenoma are also types of brain tumors but are not as common as glioblastoma multiforme in the United States.

Similar Questions