how does shock usually progress
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. How does shock typically progress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shock typically progresses from a compensated state to hypotensive shock over a period of hours. In the compensated phase, the body is trying to maintain perfusion. It is crucial to identify and intervene during this phase to prevent progression to hypotensive shock, where blood pressure drops significantly. If not promptly managed, hypotensive shock can rapidly deteriorate into cardiac arrest in minutes due to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the typical progression of shock stages as seen in clinical practice. Understanding the stages of shock and their timeframes is crucial for early recognition and appropriate intervention to prevent further deterioration.

2. A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client's temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the priority nursing goal for a client with renal calculi experiencing moderate to severe flank pain and nausea should be to manage pain. Pain management is crucial as it alleviates suffering, improves comfort, and enhances the quality of life for the client. In the case of ureteral colic from renal calculi, the cornerstone of management is effective pain control. Prompt analgesia, typically achieved with parenteral narcotics or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), is essential to provide relief and facilitate the passage of the calculi. While maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance is important in clients with renal calculi, addressing pain takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate well-being. Controlling nausea and preventing urinary tract infections are also important aspects of care, but they are secondary to managing the primary concern of pain in this urgent situation.

3. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.

4. A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's refusal to walk, along with swelling of the lower leg, indicates a possible fracture, specifically of the tibia. Fractures can cause pain and swelling, leading to difficulty or refusal to bear weight on the affected limb. Choice B, bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle, would not typically result in the child refusing to walk. Choice C, a possible fracture of the radius, is less likely given the location of the swelling and the associated refusal to walk. Choice D, stating no anatomic injury and attributing the child's behavior to wanting to be carried by the mother, is incorrect as the physical findings suggest a potential fracture that needs to be evaluated further.

5. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present in the final half of exhalation. One hour later, the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The change from low-pitched wheezes to high-pitched wheezes indicates a shift from larger to smaller airway obstruction, suggesting increased narrowing of the airways. This change signifies a progression or worsening of the airway obstruction. The absence of evidence of secretions does not support the need for suctioning. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which is not indicated by the information provided in the question.

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