Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements indicates that the provider understands how to promote rest and sleep for the client?

• A. If you would prefer not to be disturbed, we can postpone all vital signs and assessments until tomorrow morning.
• B. With your physical therapy appointments, you cannot nap more during the day even if your sleep is often interrupted at nighttime.
• C. I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.
• D. We cannot group together medications, assessments, and other interventions so you may have multiple interruptions at night.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.' To promote rest and sleep, the provider should consider incorporating the client's preferred sleep rituals or bedtime routine. This statement shows an understanding of the importance of individualizing care to promote restful sleep. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address promoting rest and sleep. Choice A focuses on postponing assessments, Choice B addresses napping during the day, and Choice D mentions multiple interruptions at night, none of which directly support promoting rest and sleep for the client.

2. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

3. Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?

• A. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• B. Naprosyn (naproxen)
• C. Elavil (amitriptyline)
• D. Corgard (nadolol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.

4. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

• A. ability to breathe
• B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• C. number of accompanying family members
• D. motor function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

5. For a client requiring total oral care, it is important for the nurse to:

• A. assemble all equipment, assist the client to a semi-Fowler's position, and place a towel on his chest.
• B. place the client in Fowler's position, prepare the equipment, and instruct the client what to do.
• C. assemble all equipment, place the client in a side-lying position, and place a towel under his chin.
• D. use gloves and clean the client's mouth, including the tongue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To provide total oral care to a client, the nurse should first assemble all necessary equipment. Placing the client in a side-lying position helps fluids to easily flow out or pool in the side of the mouth for suctioning, thus preventing aspiration. Additionally, placing a towel under the client's chin and a curved basin against the chin helps to maintain cleanliness during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because the client should be placed in a side-lying position, not a semi-Fowler's position which is used for respiratory issues. Choice B is incorrect as it does not emphasize the importance of proper positioning for effective oral care. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the procedure by focusing only on cleaning the mouth without considering the importance of positioning and preparation.

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