Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?

• A. Rotational forces
• B. Deformation forces
• C. Deceleration forces
• D. Acceleration forces

Correct answer: C: Deceleration forces

Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.

2. To palpate the liver during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse should

• A. put pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag
• B. elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing
• C. place the patient on the right side with the bed flat
• D. check the patient's post-biopsy coagulation studies

Correct answer: place the patient on the right side with the bed flat

Rationale: To palpate the liver effectively during a head-to-toe physical assessment, the patient should be positioned on the right side with the bed flat. This position helps to splint the biopsy site and allows for proper palpation of the liver. Elevating the head of the bed has no direct relevance to palpating the liver. Checking coagulation studies is done before the biopsy and is unrelated to palpation. Putting pressure on the biopsy site using a sandbag is not an appropriate way to facilitate liver palpation as it does not provide the necessary support and stabilization needed for the procedure.

3. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: Stools test negative for occult blood.

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

4. Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

• A. Teach about symptoms of variceal bleeding
• B. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing
• C. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake
• D. Review the patient's current medication list

Correct answer: Review the patient's current medication list

Rationale: The correct action for a patient diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) would be to review the patient's current medication list. This is important because certain medications can increase the risk for NAFLD, and they should be identified and possibly eliminated. Teaching about symptoms of variceal bleeding is not necessary as variceal bleeding is not a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD. Drawing blood for hepatitis serology testing is not indicated as NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis. Discussing the need to increase caloric intake is also not appropriate since weight loss is usually recommended in the management of NAFLD.

5. A nurse and client are discussing the client’s progress toward understanding his behavior under stress. This is typical of which phase in the therapeutic relationship?

• A. Pre-interaction
• B. Orientation
• C. Working
• D. Termination

Correct answer: Working

Rationale: The correct answer is the working phase. During this phase, the nurse and client actively work together to explore alternative behaviors and techniques. Discussions in this phase focus on understanding the underlying meaning behind the behavior and implementing strategies for change. Pre-interaction (choice A) refers to the phase before the nurse and client first meet and establish a relationship. The orientation phase (choice B) involves introductions, setting goals, and establishing boundaries. Termination (choice D) is the phase where the therapeutic relationship concludes, and closure is achieved.

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