Nursing Elites

1. The nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected to have glomerulonephritis and expects to note which finding that is associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Brown-colored urine
• C. Low urinary specific gravity
• D. Low blood urea nitrogen level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Gross hematuria resulting in dark, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine is a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is also common. Blood urea nitrogen levels may be elevated. A moderately elevated to high urinary specific gravity is associated with glomerulonephritis.

2. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Elevate the patient's legs
• D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.

3. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

4. An 85-year-old male has been losing mobility and gaining weight over the last two months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

• A. CBC (complete blood count)
• B. ECG (electrocardiogram)
• C. Thyroid function tests
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of weight gain and poor temperature tolerance in an elderly male suggest a potential thyroid dysfunction. Thyroid function tests are crucial in differentiating between hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and a euthyroid state. These tests involve measuring the serum levels of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, also known as thyroxine, to evaluate thyroid function accurately. A complete blood count (Choice A) would not directly address the symptoms presented. An electrocardiogram (Choice B) assesses heart activity and would not be the primary test for these symptoms. A CT scan (Choice D) provides detailed images of internal organs and structures, which would not be the initial investigation for the described symptoms.

5. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

• A. Altered tissue perfusion
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
• C. High risk for hemorrhage
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.

Similar Questions