NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?
- A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
- B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- C. Lactated Ringer's
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.
2. A patient has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which their upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. The patient is complaining of sharp chest pain, having difficulty breathing, and their trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with?
- A. Left-sided pneumothorax
- B. Pleural effusion
- C. Atelectasis
- D. Right-sided pneumothorax
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient is most likely suffering from a right-sided pneumothorax. Symptoms of a pneumothorax include sharp chest pain, difficulties with breathing, decreased vocal fremitus, absent breath sounds, and tracheal shift to the opposite of the affected side. In this case, the patient's trachea is deviated to the left side, indicating a right-sided pneumothorax. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated as they do not present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario. Left-sided pneumothorax would not cause tracheal deviation to the left side. Pleural effusion typically presents with dull chest pain and decreased breath sounds, not sharp chest pain and tracheal deviation. Atelectasis would not cause tracheal deviation and is more associated with lung collapse rather than air accumulation in the pleural space.
3. A 3-year-old had a hip spica cast applied 2 hours ago. In order to facilitate drying, the nurse should
- A. Expose the cast to air and turn the child frequently
- B. Use a heat lamp to reduce the drying time
- C. Handle the cast with the abductor bar
- D. Turn the child as little as possible
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After applying a hip spica cast, it is important to facilitate drying by exposing the cast to air and turning the child frequently. This helps promote even drying and prevents complications such as skin breakdown. Using a heat lamp can cause burns and is not recommended. Handling the cast with the abductor bar does not aid in drying the cast. Turning the child as little as possible is incorrect as regular turning is crucial to prevent complications.
4. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?
- A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
- B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
- C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
- D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
- A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
- B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
- C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
- D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.
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