a patient is being admitted to the icu with a severe case of encephalitis which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this co
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

2. The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.

3. The mother of a newborn infant with hypospadias asks the nurse why circumcision cannot be performed. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The reason circumcision is not performed in a newborn with hypospadias is that the dorsal foreskin tissue will be needed for the surgical repair of hypospadias. Delaying circumcision allows for the preservation of tissue that will be crucial for the corrective surgery. This surgical repair is typically done within the first year of life to minimize the psychological impact on the child. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific reason for delaying circumcision in this case.

4. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

5. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.

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