a patient is being admitted to the icu with a severe case of encephalitis which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this co
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

2. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6�F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn). Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia to reduce mortality. While providing symptomatic relief with medications like Codeine for cough, Guaifenesin for mucus clearance, and Acetaminophen for fever and pain is important, the priority should be to start antibiotic therapy to target the underlying infection. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an appropriate choice for treating severe community-acquired pneumonia caused by pneumococcal organisms.

3. A victim of domestic violence states, 'If I were better, I would not have been beaten.' Which feeling best describes what the victim may be experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is self-blame. In this scenario, the victim is attributing the abuse to their own inadequacies or faults, thinking that if they were different, the abuse would not occur. This is a common response seen in victims of domestic violence, where they wrongly internalize the blame for the abuser's actions. Fear (Choice A) is a valid emotion, but in this case, the victim is not expressing fear but rather self-blame. Helplessness (Choice B) is also a common feeling in victims of domestic violence, but in this specific statement, the victim is demonstrating self-blame. Rejection (Choice D) does not accurately reflect the victim's statement and emotional response in the given scenario.

4. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.

5. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.

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