NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?
- A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
- B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- C. Lactated Ringer's
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.
2. Which response would best assist the chemically impaired client in dealing with issues of guilt?
- A. Addiction usually causes people to feel guilty. Don't worry, it is a typical response due to your drinking behavior.
- B. What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?
- C. Don't focus on your guilty feelings. These feelings will only lead you to drinking and taking drugs.
- D. You've caused a great deal of pain to your family and close friends, so it will take time to undo all the things you've done.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is, 'What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?' This response encourages the client to reflect on their actions, identify sources of guilt, and develop a plan to address and reduce these feelings constructively. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's guilt as typical, potentially invalidating their emotions. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests avoiding guilty feelings by turning to substance use, which is counterproductive. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the negative consequences of the client's actions without offering a constructive way to address and alleviate guilt.
3. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia nervosa
- D. Systemic sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.
4. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?
- A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
- B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
- C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
- D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.
5. In which order should the nurse take the following actions for an older patient with new onset confusion who is normally alert and oriented?
- A. Obtain the oxygen saturation, Check the patient's pulse rate, Notify the health care provider, Document the change in status
- B. Obtain the oxygen saturation, Check the patient's pulse rate, Document the change in status, Notify the health care provider
- C. Document the change in status, Notify the health care provider, Check the patient's pulse rate, Obtain the oxygen saturation
- D. Document the change in status, Check the patient's pulse rate, Obtain the oxygen saturation, Notify the health care provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct order of actions for the nurse in this scenario is to first obtain the oxygen saturation to assess the patient's airway and oxygenation status. Next, checking the patient's pulse rate helps in evaluating circulation. Subsequently, documenting the change in the patient's status is important for maintaining an accurate record of care. Finally, notifying the health care provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and further management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing oxygen saturation should precede checking the pulse rate to address potential physiological causes of confusion. Additionally, documentation should follow patient assessment and notification of the healthcare provider for appropriate record-keeping and communication.
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