Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

• A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
• B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• C. Lactated Ringer's
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

2. A newborn infant in the nursery has developed vomiting, poor feeding, lethargy, and respiratory distress, and has been diagnosed with necrotizing enterocolitis. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for this infant?

• A. Feed the infant 30 cc of sterile water
• B. Position the infant on his back
• C. Administer antibiotics as ordered
• D. Allow the infant to breastfeed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is a serious condition characterized by ischemic bowel, leading to gastrointestinal symptoms, lethargy, poor feeding, and respiratory distress. In the management of NEC, it is crucial to stop oral feedings, insert a nasogastric tube for decompression, and administer antibiotics as prescribed by the physician. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing intervention for an infant with NEC is to administer antibiotics as ordered. Choice A, feeding the infant sterile water, is incorrect because oral feedings should be stopped in NEC. Choice B, positioning the infant on his back, is not directly related to the treatment of NEC. Choice D, allowing the infant to breastfeed, is contraindicated in NEC as oral feedings should be ceased to prevent further complications.

3. A patient is deciding whether they should take the live influenza vaccine (nasal spray) or the inactivated influenza vaccine (shot). The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would NOT contraindicate the nasal (live vaccine) route of administration?

• A. The patient takes long-term corticosteroids
• B. The patient is not feeling well today
• C. The patient is 55 years old
• D. The patient has young children

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has young children. Having young children is not a contraindication for the live influenza vaccine unless the children are immunocompromised, which is not mentioned. Choice A, the patient taking long-term corticosteroids, is a contraindication for the live vaccine due to potential immunosuppression. Choice B, the patient not feeling well today, is a general precaution for vaccination and not a contraindication specific to the live influenza vaccine. Choice C, the patient being 55 years old, is not a contraindication for the live vaccine unless there are other specific medical conditions present.

4. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.

5. The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old female client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?

• A. Apply dressing using sterile technique
• B. Improve the client's nutrition status
• C. Initiate limb compression therapy
• D. Begin proteolytic debridement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Venous stasis occurs when venous blood collects and stagnates in the lower leg due to incompetent venous valves. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the cells in the lower extremities, resulting in cell death or necrosis. Venous stasis ulcers, characterized by shallow brown wounds with irregular margins, typically develop on the lower leg or ankle. The primary goal in managing clients with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. Proper nutrition plays a crucial role in wound healing. Nutritional deficiencies are common causes of venous ulcers, and a diet rich in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamins C and A is recommended to enhance wound healing. Applying dressings with sterile technique, initiating limb compression therapy, and beginning proteolytic debridement are important interventions in wound care but may not directly address the underlying issue of poor nutrition that is essential for healing venous stasis ulcers.

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