Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

• A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
• B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• C. Lactated Ringer's
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

2. The nurse is caring for clients in the pediatric unit. A 6-year-old patient is admitted with 2nd and 3rd degree burns on his arms. The nurse should assign the new patient to which of the following roommates?

• A. A 4-year-old with sickle-cell disease
• B. A 12-year-old with chickenpox
• C. A 6-year-old undergoing chemotherapy
• D. A 7-year-old with a high temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should be concerned about the burn patient's vulnerability to infection due to compromised skin integrity. Sickle cell disease is not a communicable disease, so rooming the burn patient with a 4-year-old with sickle-cell disease would not pose an increased risk of infection transmission. Rooming the burn patient with a 12-year-old with chickenpox would increase the risk of infection for the burn patient. Rooming with a 6-year-old undergoing chemotherapy may expose the burn patient to potential infections. A 7-year-old with a high temperature could potentially have a contagious illness, which could be risky for the burn patient.

3. The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs two (2) hours ago. The nurse should

• A. Place a call to the client's healthcare provider for instructions
• B. Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
• C. Reassure the client's wife that the symptoms are transient
• D. Instruct the client's wife to call the doctor if his symptoms become worse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with concerning symptoms of lethargy and confusion after a fall. These symptoms could indicate a serious underlying issue, such as a head injury or internal bleeding. The nurse's priority is to ensure the client receives immediate evaluation and treatment to prevent any further harm. Option B is the correct choice as it emphasizes the urgency of the situation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the critical nature of the client's condition. Contacting the healthcare provider, reassuring the wife, or waiting for symptoms to worsen could delay necessary medical intervention.

4. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is

• A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
• B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
• C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
• D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.

5. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Abdominal distention
• B. A bruit near the epigastric area
• C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
• D. Blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.

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