NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?
- A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
- B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
- C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
- D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.
2. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?
- A. Start a peripheral IV line to administer any necessary sedative drugs.
- B. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
- C. Obtain a collection device to hold a reasonable amount of pleural fluid for extraction.
- D. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.
3. What intervention should the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure?
- A. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth
- B. Try to place the client on his side
- C. Restrain the client to prevent injury
- D. Place pillows around the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the client is at risk of injury due to severe, involuntary muscle spasms and contractions. It is crucial for the nurse to avoid restraining the client or inserting objects into their mouth, as these actions may lead to further harm. Placing the client on their side can help facilitate the drainage of oral secretions and assist in maintaining an open airway, reducing the risk of aspiration. Restraint should be avoided as it can exacerbate muscle contractions and increase the risk of injury. Placing pillows around the client may not provide adequate support or protection during the seizure, making it a less effective intervention compared to positioning the client on their side.
4. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?
- A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
- B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
- C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
- D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.
5. The healthcare professional is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the healthcare professional expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
- B. Intense pain in the toe
- C. Yellow-tinged sclera
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients with sickle cell disease, severe generalized pain can be associated with vaso-occlusive crises, but yellow-tinged sclera is a common clinical finding related to sickle cell disease. This yellowing of the sclera, known as jaundice, occurs due to the release of bilirubin from damaged or destroyed red blood cells. Severe and persistent diarrhea is not a typical assessment finding in sickle cell disease. Intense pain in the toe may be associated with vaso-occlusive crisis but is not the expected assessment finding in this scenario. Headache is a common symptom in many conditions but is not specifically related to the assessment finding expected in a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with severe generalized pain.
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