NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?
- A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
- B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
- C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
- D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.
Correct answer: D: Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.
2. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?
- A. Options for smoking cessation
- B. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
- C. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk
- D. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer
Correct answer: Options for smoking cessation
Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.
3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?
- A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
- B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
- C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
- D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction
Correct answer: Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.
4. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?
- A. Anger
- B. Apathy
- C. Anxiety
- D. Agitation
Correct answer: B: Apathy
Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indifférence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.
5. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6°F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first?
- A. Codeine
- B. Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)
Correct answer: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)
Rationale: The correct answer is Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn). Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia to reduce mortality. While providing symptomatic relief with medications like Codeine for cough, Guaifenesin for mucus clearance, and Acetaminophen for fever and pain is important, the priority should be to start antibiotic therapy to target the underlying infection. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an appropriate choice for treating severe community-acquired pneumonia caused by pneumococcal organisms.
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