Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is true of advanced directives?

• A. They should be appropriately documented in the client's chart.
• B. They are only applicable if the client has a terminal illness.
• C. They are required if the client is unconscious.
• D. They are non-legal requests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that advanced directives should be appropriately documented in the client's chart. Advanced directives are legal requests regarding a client's healthcare that come into effect under specific circumstances, regardless of the severity of their illness or level of consciousness. Choice B is incorrect because advanced directives can cover various healthcare decisions, not just terminal illnesses. Choice C is incorrect as advanced directives can be established and documented while the client is conscious, not only if they are unconscious. Choice D is incorrect because advanced directives are indeed legal requests, not non-legal requests.

2. The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?

• A. pureed canned squash
• B. pureed apples
• C. yogurt
• D. infant rice cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.

3. A director of nursing at a long-term care center has announced a change to computerized documentation of nursing care. A certified nursing assistant (CNA) on the team, resistant to the change, is not taking an active part in facilitating the implementation of the new procedure. Which strategy would be the best approach to dealing with the conflict?

• A. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change
• B. Ignoring the resistance
• C. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs
• D. Telling the CNA that noncompliance will be documented in the personnel record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best approach to dealing with resistance to change is through open communication and understanding. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change allows for a constructive dialogue where issues can be addressed, and alternative solutions can be explored. Ignoring the resistance does not help in resolving the conflict and may lead to further issues. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs does not address the underlying concerns of the CNA and may create more resistance. Threatening the CNA with noncompliance consequences may escalate the resistance and create a negative work environment.

4. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

5. Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for hepatitis. Tattooing puts a client at risk for blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen, while herpes and syphilis are spread through direct contact like sexual activity. Therefore, hepatitis is the most relevant infection to screen for after getting a tattoo.

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